The “Seventieth”
Week
Verse 27 of Dan 9 is
probably the most interesting verse in the Seventy Week prophecy as it contains
some key chronological and prophetic statements that help to firmly establish
what the overall interpretation and
understanding of the Seventy Weeks should be. Therefore an accurate translation
of this verse, and a proper interpretation of its prophetic predictions is
absolutely crucial especially in the light of all of the varying end-time
prophetic scenarios that have been developed from varying interpretations of
this single verse.
The main two
interpretations of this verse have been along the following lines:
(1) Since the time for
the Seventy Weeks seemed to have apparently run out at the end of verse
26, then verse 27 has been said, by some interpreters, to be referring to
events that would follow the last event in verse 26, namely the destruction of
Jerusalem in 70 A.D. These events are then
predicted to be entirely removed from the Messianic theme and context of the
previous three verses of this prophecy. This interpretation is the basic
position that the school of Futurism has taken.
(2) The other main way
in which this verse has been interpreted is the linguistically supported
possibility that this verse 27 is actually restating the events of verse 26 but
with greater details and with more precise chronological specifications.N1
An acceptance of either
one of these views, will immediately affect the translation of this verse as it
will determine the exact way in which the opening flexible waw-conjunction
of this verse should be rendered as it serves to indicate the actual relationship
between verse 26 and verse 27. Based on the first view that verse 27 is
representing events that are remotely separate from the Messianic theme and
context of Dan 9:24-26, then this opening waw-conjunction has
been understood to be functioning as either a “disjunctive” waw or
a “consecutive/relative” waw.
Therefore it has been translated as either “Now” or “Then,”R2
respectively. If this waw was indeed a disjunctive waw,
then it would be signaling that a radical change of scenery and
participants had occurred in this verse, but, as Waltke and O’Connor have
pointed out, such a function for a waw is usually qualified by the
introduction of the new participants.B3 Interestingly enough,
a “disjunctive” waw would also not necessarily, or not
automatically, indicate a radical separation of the verse, or clause that it is
introducing from its preceding context, since such a waw is used to
introduce a situation with a continuity of setting that either: (1)
contrasts with the situation that precedes it, or (2) specifies contemporary
circumstances or causes; or (3) simply provide a comparison.B4
Also if this opening waw
is translated as the consecutive/relative waw-“Then”- then this
would mean that the events in verse 27 would occur sometime after the 70 A.D. destruction, but the supposition that new participants are involved
here cannot be supported contextually or syntactically, and therefore such a
conclusion would be nothing more than a supposition.
Now if verse 27, on the
other hand, is simply reiterating what has been said in verse 26 but this time
in a more elaborate and precise way, then this waw-conjunction would be
functioning as an expegetical wawR5 as verse 27 would then be
simply "expounding" on verse 26. This opening waw-conjunction
would then be translated into English as “that is,”R6
and would be introducing the upcoming elaboration of the preceding verse.
Since the precise
function of this opening waw-conjunction, and also the
relationship of verse 27 to verse 26 and
to the rest of the Seventy Week prophecy can only be determined by what the
content of verse 27 is actually referring to, then a careful, critical and
exegetical analysis of this verse has to first be done here.
Now taking into
consideration the theoretically possible translations of the waw-conjunction
that could begin verse 27, the opening statement in this verse would then
read as [traditional translation]:
Who is
"He"?
This opening statement
immediately poses a very important question, namely: Who is the third person
singular pronoun “he” referring to? Is this an allusion to (1) a future Antichrist
as Futurist-Dispensationalist interpreters have supposed, or (2) is this a
reference to Antiochus Epiphanes, as Preterist interpreters say, or (3) is this
a reference to Jesus Christ the Messiah, who has thus far been the main
character and focus of this Messianic prophecy? This question is actually
answered by identifying the actual antecedent of this third person personal
pronoun here.
There are three
contextual proper names that can be considered here as the antecedents of the
third person singular pronoun "He" in Dan 9:27, namely:
"Messiah, the ‘King’" (vs. 25), "Messiah" (vs. 26), and (“surfacely” speaking)"the
King" (vs. 26).N8 Now
since the Biblical interpretation of this prophecy has thus far shown with
consistency that all of these three absolute titles refer to Jesus Christ, then
the only conclusion that can be made here is that this third person personal
pronoun "He" is also a reference to Jesus Christ since no other
singular figure has been mentioned in this prophecy. While this conclusion
quickly resolve the identification question here, there is a very interesting,
theological observation that can be seen when the exact antecedent for
this personal pronoun is more precisely specified here. This precise antecedent
is determined by a strict adherence to the syntactical rules for identifying
the natural antecedent of a pronoun.
Although the title of
"King"(ngîd)
in vs. 26 is physically the closest ‘antecedent’ to the pronoun "He,"
it actually does not qualify here as an antecedent of this pronoun, or, for
that matter, as an antecedent period, since it is neither the subject,
nor the object of the clause that it is found in. As it appears in the phrase “the
people of the ‘King’ who is to come,” in verse 26, it is grammatically
subordinate to the actual subject of that clause -"the people"- and
is simply serving there to qualify this people which we have seen were the unbelieving
Jews..
The other two choices
of: "Messiah the King" and "Messiah" both do qualify here
as true antecedents, but because the single title "Messiah" of verse
26a is closer than the double title "Messiah, the ‘King’" of verse 25
to the pronoun "He" in verse 27, then it is the one that qualifies as
the natural antecedent of the personal pronoun in verse 27.
What this choice of
antecedent of "Messiah" comes
to mean theologically, is that it would be Jesus Christ, functioning here in
His role of Messiah, who would be performing the action that is described in
the opening statement of this verse. In other words it is Jesus, "the
Messiah," who had been "cut off" in verse 26, who was now
specifically being referred to here in this prediction, and not Jesus the
ruling “King of the Jews” who had pronounced a judgement of doom upon His
rebellious people. So we should therefore expect the prediction in vs. 27 to
have some Messianic implications in it and, of course, for its predicted action
to be carried out by Jesus Christ.
The next two questions
that now need to be answered are: (1) What is "He," Jesus, the
Messiah, going to do for one week? and (2) With whom?
“The "higbîr"
of a "berît"”
Like the other key
statements that were made in this prophecy, the question now of: "What is
Jesus the Messiah going to do?" is actually answered by a syntactically
accurate translation of the text here, and particularly of the action verb that
pinpoints exactly what this Messianic action would entail.
The Hebrew verb that is
used in this statement is higbîr. Lexicographers have identified
the basic meaning of this expression as: "be strong, mighty;"B9 "to be strong;"B10
"prevail, be mighty, have
strength, be great;"B11 "be superior, prevail, succeed
increase."B12 So its literal translation in verse 27
should also be along these lines of something "becoming stronger" or
"prevailing."
The verbal expression
higbîr is grammatically identified here as a Hiphîl stem,R13
but it is more specifically identified syntactically as a causative Hiphîl
since it would be a transitive verb in the Qal stem as it
would govern an object in that verbal stem.R14 So this verb would
have an element of causation in its translation and/or meaning, and would thus
be literally translated as "cause to prevail."R15
The next key
expression in this verse is the expression berît. It
has accurately been translated by almost all of the major English versions of
the Bible,R16 and also by most commentators,R17 as "a
covenant."N18 This translation of "a covenant" would then make the
opening statement in Dan 9:27 predict that, Jesus Christ the Messiah would
"cause a covenant to prevail."
The covenant that Jesus
would "cause to prevail" here was of course the promise of the New
Covenant which, in New Testament theology is actually referred to as the “Second”[Gk.-deuteras]
Covenant (see Heb 8:7; 10:9) with the “First” [Gk.-prōtē] Covenant
having been the one of the Levitical priesthood of Aaron and his descendants
(Heb 7:11). This “prevailing” of this “Second Covenant”had been anticipated
quite early in the Old Testament times,N19 when, in about the 8th
century B.C., (which was about 700 years before Christ's advent
and about 700 years after the making of the “First” Covenant at Sinai), God had
anxiously declared through the prophet Jeremiah that:
“The
days are coming, [ . . . ] when I will make a new covenant with the house
of
Israel and Judah not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers
in the day that I took them by the hand to
bring them out of the land of Egypt, . . But
this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel: After those
days, I will put My law in their minds, and write it on their hearts; and I
will be their God, and they shall be My people.” Jer. 31:31-34S20
Jesus clearly, and
deliberately, fulfilled this promise of establishing this “new and better
Covenant” (cf. Heb 8:6b) by (1) clarifying the blameless, though inefficacious,
stipulations of the First OneS21 and then by (2) adding and modifying some of
its stipulations that could not have been reasonably introduced before His
advent and the Revelation of His grace.S22 He then went on to seal
this “better” Second Covenant through His ratifying death on the cross.S23
Now what needs to be
further clarified here is: Who is the “many” in that prediction specifically
referring to?
This question is
answered by an understanding of how the Hebrew expression for "many,"
rabbîm, is usually used in the Bible. When rabbîm occurs
by itself in the OT, as it does here in Dan 9:27, that is without being
in combination with a noun, it is then is rightly and simply translated as
"many,"S24 but a Biblical example that helps
to determine to who this "many" actually extended to, is provided by
a similar use of this expression rabbîm in another Messianic context,
namely in the prophecy of the ‘Suffering Servant’ in Isaiah 53. Speaking of the
coming Messiah there, it was said in verse 11 that:
“By His
knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many.” (NKJV)
This “many” here was
clearly a reference to those who would come to accept and follow the teachings
of Jesus and believe in Him. Since a grand scale rejection of the Messiah had
been expected and foretold in Daniel’s Messianic prophecy (Dan 9:26) and
similarly in Isaiah’s (Isa 53:3), then the parallel “many” in Dan 9:27 should
therefore not be understood to be a "many" of "totality" or of a
"majority;" i.e., the Jewish nation as a whole, or most
of the Jewish nation, but rather as a reference to a "many" of only
those who would come to believe in Jesus as the Messiah. Therefore it would be
referring to the select, minority group of future believers, i.e., a remnant.S25
This more precise meaning would then also add to the theological
significance that was indicated by the syntactically-accurate choice of the
antecedent "Messiah" for the pronoun "He" in Dan 9:27, as
it then makes this statement indicate that ‘the Messiah would cause this
covenant to prevail, for one prophetic week, with, specifically, the many believers
in Him.’
Interestingly enough,
while Jesus was in the process of actually sealing this Second Covenant,
He used some expressions that were very similar to the ones that had been
expressed in Dan 9:27, as He said during the Last Supper:
“This is My blood of the covenant, which is to
be shed on behalf of manyN26 for forgiveness
of sins.” Matt 26:28 [NASB] (cf. Heb 9:20, 22).
The author of the
Epistle to the HebrewsN27 goes on to indicate that the promise of
this Second Covenant was indeed fulfilled during the advent of Christ. (See Heb
8:6-10)
The establishment of
this Second Covenant was not without its difficulties and spiritual battles
since it carried with it some eternal cosmic implications and ramifications as
it was this Covenant that would fulfill the long-awaited for promise of ‘crushing of the serpent’s head’ (Gen 3:14,
15; cf. John 12:31). Nevertheless, Jesus, by His steadfast determination to do
carry out His Father’s will, and by His great courage in taking on the cross of
Calvary (Luke 9:51; 12:49, 50; 22:41-45; cf. Heb 12:2); did ‘caused this
Second Covenant to prevail’ despite the tremendous opposition from the powers
of darkness and from other humans opposition. (See e.g., Matt 4:8-11; 11:20-24;
16:21-23; Luke 9:51-56; etc).
This great, overall
struggle was somewhat foreseen in the Seventy Week prophecy as a perfect
tense was used with the future verb “cause to prevail” rather than an imperfect
tense, to predict this action. The imperfect tense would here indicate
that this “prevailing” event would be a logical consequence of something,
but instead the perfect tense was actually indicating that this event
would actually be an “accident,”B28 meaning that the actual prevailing
of this Second Covenant wouldn’t be a given. Tremendous efforts had to
constantly put into it in order to eventually cause it to prevail.
After His death,
resurrection and ascension to Heaven, Jesus still continued to cause this
Second Covenant to prevail with the Jews, through the ministry of His disciples
(cf. Heb 2:3b), as He first sent them exclusively to the Jews (cf. Acts 1:8a).
At Pentecost, 3000 people came to believe in Him and accepted this Second
Covenant (Acts 2:2; cf. 1:4-8) and another 5000 did the same on another
occasion (Acts 4:4). But despite the great results here in the apostles laborsS29
in confirming this Second Covenant, it was clearly understood by them that it
was the Lord who did the “calling” (Acts 2:39), and that it was the
Lord who: “added to the church daily those who were being saved” (Act
2:47). As Paul would later say concerning the calling of Israel to this Second
Covenant:
“How then shall they call upon Him in whom they
have not believed? And how shall they believe in Him whom they have not heard?
And how shall they hear without a preacher?...” Rom 10:14 NASB.
So, in summary, the opening statement in Dan
9:27 had predicted that:
“He [Jesus]
will cause a covenant to prevail with the many [believing Jews]” . . .
Now the length of time
in which this covenant would be caused to prevail with, and also amongst, the
"many" Jews who would come to believe, was specified in Dan 9:27 as
one prophetic week. This “week” has been unanimously, and rightly, understood
as a period of seven literal years and if we now attach it to the end of the
483 years (69 weeks) that were already fulfilled at the time of Christ’s
baptism in 27 A.D., then this would
mean that these seven years would cover the period from 27 A.D. to 34 A.D.
It will now be seen how the chronology in this
prophetic week was fulfilled.
The Chronology of the 70th
Week
The Expression "haşî "
The next key expression
that appears in Dan 9:27 is the chronological expression haşî.
Its precise meaning and use in Dan 9:27 is seen by how it is similarly used
in some other places in the Old Testament. First of all when haşî
is used with units of measure, like a cubit or an acre, it has the sense of
a "half."S30 When it used in reference to
"people," it also mostly has the sense of "half;"
especially in describing the "half of a tribe."S31 However, when haşî is
used with a period of time, as it is in Dan 9:27, it then usually refers to the
midpoint of that given period.S32 So the literal translation of wahaşî
in Dan 9:27 in relation to the prophetically temporal expression “the week”
[hašbû⊂a] would then be:
Chronologically
speaking, this prophetic specification was predicting that there would be an
event that would take place 3½ years into the final 7-year period of the
prophecy. Since this last “week” had started in the Fall of 27 A.D. than this “midst” period would be in the Spring of 31 A.D. What would this event be? The prophecy goes on to state that:
“In the
midst/middle of the week He will yašebît zebah ûminhah”
Since Jesus is the only
singular figure that has been mentioned in this prophecy, then the third-person
personal pronoun "He" here in this statement can only again be a
reference to Him; and also, more specifically, to Him in His role of Messiah
since the absolute title “Messiah” in verse 26 is again the natural
antecedent of this personal pronoun.. What then is the action that is predicted
by the expression yašebît in relation to the last two
expressions: zebah ûminehah?
The Expression "yašebît"(zebah
ûminhah)
The expression yašebît
is a form of the verb šabbat which literally means "to
cease"R34
i.e., "to rest" in the sense of a ‘rest of cessation.’S35
As the verbal expression yašebît appears in Dan
9:27, it is syntactically classified here as another causative Hiphîl,
and is therefore more precisely translated as "cause to cease."S36
So what was being predicted here was that Jesus would cause something to
“cease” in the middle of the last prophetic, week and that is namely here: a
"zebah" and a "minhah."
These expressions, zebah
and minhah, are two terms that refer to the offerings
made in the Levitical Temple system and a surface look at theses institutions
go on to reveal exactly what is meant here in Dan 9:27.
In the Levitical system
there were five different kind of offerings that were made.R37
There was:
(1) The Burnt Offering [⊂ôlāh (a.k.a. kālîl)]-for
an act of Worship and/or Consecration. (Lev 1)
(2) The Grain or MealN38Offering
[minhah]-as an (additional) gift. (Lev 2)
(3) The Peace Offering [šelem]-for
occasions of Thanks. (Lev 3)
What is interesting
here is that the only kind of offering that did not involve an animal sacrifice
was the “grain” or “meal offering”-the minhah- as it
was only an unleavened meal or simply unleaven bread.R41
Now since the expression “zebah” is one that is used to
refer in general to an animal sacrifice (i.e., a bloody sacrifice),R42
it can therefore be seen here that the statement “zebah ûminhah” in Dan 9:27 was used to
refer to every different type of sacrificial offerings done in the Levitical
system. (I.e. the four animal sacrifices, and the one non-animal offering).
So based on these
definitions, a complete translation of the statement in Dan 9:27 would then
say:
“He
(Jesus) will cause sacrifice and meal-offering to
cease.”
Now based on the function of the animal
sacrifice and the meal-offering in the Sinaic Covenant as sin-offerings, this
statement would therefore be predicting that Jesus would cause the offerings
that dealt with the forgiveness and remission of sins in the First Covenant to “cease.”
How then did He fulfill this prediction? The precise meaning and fulfillment of
this prediction can be arrived at by an in-depth analysis of some key
syntactical points here.
Since the verbal
expression šabbat was expressed as a causative Hiphîl
rather than as a (resultative) Piel, then it was being said here
that is wasn’t a complete and radical outcome of ceasing of the
Jewish’s sin-offerings that was to occur at the exact time of the Messiah’s
death. This is because the Hiphîl stem here was actually primarily
depicting the causing of this action or an event that would eventually
be fulfilled,R43 and was also not placing an
emphasis on this state that would result from it,R44 while a
Piel stem would have been indicating the effecting of a state of
"cessation."R45 In other words, the resultative Piel would
be indicating that Jesus would actually make both "sacrifice and
meal-offering" come to a physical and objective state of
"cessation," while the causative Hiphîl was here only
indicating that Jesus would simply cause a subjective action of ceasing
to begin to take place at the time of His death. Therefore it can be
seen, that it was an action of cessation that was predicted to occur at
the time of Christ’s death and not the ushering in of an observable state
of cessation. So while a Piel prediction would have Jesus going
to the Temple immediately after His resurrection, to objectively bring about
the outcome of a physical state of cessation for these sacrifices; this Hiphîl
prediction simply predicted that Jesus would only cause a subjective
cessation of these sacrifices and offerings to take place at that time.
Also the use of an imperfect
tense with this verb “to cease” here rather than a perfect tense,
comes to indicate that the distinct, internal phases of this gradual process
of cessation were being emphasized here rather than the
"complete" or "grand picture" (a “whole” situation)
of the sacrifice and meal-offering being ceased to be offered.R46
This imperfect tense was also indicating that this future ceasing
event would be foreseen event occurring as a logical consequence of something;
i.e., because of the Messiah’s prior, anti-typological death, these
sin-offerings would eventually, consequentially, and logically
have to “cease.”
This conclusion in this
last statement was also indicated by the fact that contrary to an object in the
Hiphîl stem, an object in the Piel stem, is passively transposed
into a new state or condition as it makes no contribution to the verbal notion,B47
but, as it was stated before,R48 in the Hiphîl this
object actually participates, at varying degrees, in the event expressed
by the verbal root, and even as an indirect second subject. So based on
this syntactical feature, the use of a Hiphîl stem here then meant that
the object of; “sacrifice and meal-offering,” would in some degree “participate”
in this action of ceasing. The example that Waltke and O’Connor have given to
illustrated this notion is the sample phrase: “John caused the cabbage to cook,”
in contrast to the Piel notion that would say: “John made the
cabbage cooked.”B49 In the first example, the cabbage
"participated" in this act of cooking because it could be cooked
as it was actually made to be cooked. So John didn’t make the
cabbage do something that it couldn’t, or wasn’t, suppose to do. In a similar
manner the sacrifice and meal-offering in Dan 9:27 "participated" in
the action of ceasing there because they were supposed to cease one day and be
fully replaced as they were only substitutionary and thus temporary in nature.
They were to function until the time when Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God (John
1:29), would offer Himself up as the ultimate sin sacrifice. As Paul would
indicate, this Mosaic institution only functioned as a "tutor" until
Jesus, the schoolmaster would come (See Gal 4:1-5). So it was only natural
for them to lose their function and meaning after Jesus had died.
Some other significant
arguments that can be emphasized here as they will help establish how this “ceasing”
action should be viewed and understood are found in the grammar of the
expressions "zebah" and "minhah."
First of all both these
words appear in Dan 9:27 in the singular form: and neither one of them are
qualified by a definite article; i.e., "a sacrifice" and " a
meal-offering." These two points are quite significant because, first of all,
if the actual ritual of daily sacrifices and meal-offerings was being predicted
to come to a radical end at the time of the crucifixion, then it would have
been more appropriate for them to be expressed in the plural form rather than
in the singular because they would then be clearly saying that it would be all “sacrifices
and meal-offerings” that would cease to be offered. If this same radical cessation meaning was
used here with the two singular terms in Dan 9:27, then it would strangely
literally mean that the death of Jesus Christ would only make one
"sacrifice" and one "meal-offering" cease to be
offered. This of course would not make any sense theologically. Secondly, the
absence of a definite article before "sacrifice" and
"meal-offering" would further make a translation of “one sacrifice and one
meal-offering ceasing" inaccurate here since an accurate translation of
this phrase could not be definitely pinpointing two particular offerings. So
this non-definite, singular expression was therefore indicating here that it
was not the actual physical sacrifices that were being pointed out here, but
rather the symbolic meaning that they had as they were generically being
referred to here as "sacrifice and meal-offering." Therefore based on
these grammatical indications it can then be seen that the prediction in Dan
9:27 would indeed make more sense if it was the abstract substance and
meaning that was given to these two particular sin-offerings that would
come to "cease" at the time of the crucifixion, when type
(sin-offering) would meet anti-type (Jesus the Lamb of God).S50
So when this
anti-typological and theological significance of Christ’s atoning death is
fully understood,R51
then it can be seen how the "ceasing" prediction in Dan 9:27 was
fulfilled at the exact time of Jesus’s sacrificial death on the cross. It did
indeed, in essence put an end to these sin-offerings although they were still
continued to be offered for a while after that by, not only unbelieving Jews,
but also by the early Jewish-Christians who had not yet fully understood the
antitypical meaning of Christ’s death. But as we have seen here, Christ’s
superior sacrifice had already completely taken away the role and significance
that had made these sin-offerings effective.S52 So it was in this
sense that Jesus caused these sin-offerings “to cease.”
The abstract cessation
here of these sin-offerings was actually visibly signaled to have gone into
effect at the exact time of Christ’s death when the veil in the Temple that
shielded the, now departed, Shekinah glory of God in the Most Holy Place,E53
was torn from top to bottom by an unseen hand.N54 This was a sign
from God that He had "closed the ceremonial Law books" of the system
for making atonement for sin in the First Covenant (see Heb. 7:11). He had once
instituted this system to serve as a concrete depiction of His atonement
process with fallen man, but from the time of the Second Covenant on, it would
only be Jesus, His Son, and no longer earthly priests, who would serve as the
Mediator between God and man (1 Tim 2:5, 6; cf. Heb 8:6; 9:15). From then on,
anyone could “come boldly to the throne of grace,” “by the blood of Jesus and
by the way which He [had] dedicated for us through the veil” in order to obtain
pardon. (Heb 4:16; 10:19, 20). The earthly temple and its system had fulfilled
its tutoring purposes (cf. Gal 4:1-5) as now “One greater than the Temple” had
come (Matt 12:6). Interestingly enough, Jesus’s death on the cross, at the
ninth hourE55 [6:00 p.m.], was the exact time of the offering of the
evening sin-offerings in the Temple (cf. Matt. 27:45, 50). Therefore the transition here from type to
antitype (“in the place of ” the type) was perfect! (cf. 1 Cor 5:7).
It is also interesting
to note here that while God's presence had departed from the Temple at precise
time of Christ's death, the Temple itself still remained standing, as we have
seen, for about 40 more years. But since
God had officially departed from it, then it was in essence completely void and
desolate. In a similar way, while sacrifices and meal-offerings continued to be
offered for a number of years after Christ’s death, they too were “void and desolate.” They would eventually
come to an utter end at the time of the destruction of the Temple in 70 A.D. This would, so-to-speak, be their resultative Piel state of
cessation. Even the unbelieving Jews, after this physical destruction, did not
feel that it was necessary to revive and reestablish this system of bloody
sacrifices. They instead adjusted their theology to compensate for the absence
of a physical Temple. So this “new revelation” of the ceasing of the First
Covenant services was then made clear to all in 70 A.D. by this utter
destruction of the Temple and the abolishment of its services.
Also since Jesus did
not actually tell His disciples right away that He had caused the meaning of
these offerings to cease, it is then understandable why they and other very
early (Jewish) Christian believers customarily continued to offer them as they
did not immediately know what had taken place. They of course would later come
to fully understand this ceasing action as they gradually came to fully
understand the meaning and implications of Christ’s anti-typical death, mainly
through the guidance of the Holy Spirit (cf. John 16:12,13) as revealed in the
inspired and radical teachings of the enlightened Paul, God’s chosen instrument
for this purpose. As an ex-teacher of this ceremonial aspect of the Mosaic Law
(cf. Phil 3: 5, 6), Paul better understood the full implication of what Jesus
had “caused to cease” by His death on the cross.
In the light of all of this concerning the
"ceasing" of animal sacrifices by the event of Jesus Christ’s death,
it then would seem quite strange on the part of God if He felt, as some popular
modern-day end-time prophetic scenarios of some Christian expositors strangely
enough predict, that the reviving of animal sacrifices and sin-offerings before
the end of time would be an absolute necessity for the salvation of ethnic
Jews, and that this reviving of bloody sacrifices would be endorsed and watched
over by, of all people, Jesus Christ Himself, and also that it would be
conducted in a rebuilt Temple in Jerusalem. Such a basis for prophetic
interpretations really has no Biblical support and is actually nothing more
than a theological/prophetical pre-supposition, which actually goes against the
plain fundamental and essential teaching of the Bible on salvation by faith in
Jesus Christ and His Sacrifice alone!
It is either everyone, both from the First Covenant Era and from the
Second Covenant Era, will be saved by faith in Jesus Christ, by either having:
looked forward to His ultimate sacrifice at Calvary, or by looking back
to this eternal event; or God will have, and make, some people be saved by
the "works of the [Mosaic] law."
If the apostle Paul were alive today, he would categorically and
emphatically refute such a teaching by saying:
“A man is not justified by the works of the law
but by faith in Jesus Christ, even as we [Jewish and Gentile Christians] have
believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not
by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be
justified.” Gal 2:16 [i.e.s and explanation supplied]. (Cf.
Acts 13:38, 39; Rom 4:1-3, 10:1-4; Heb 10:1-4).N56
It was because of the
impossibility that anyone could be saved by the works of the Mosaic law (Heb
7:18, 19) that God purposely had Jesus be born ‘under this law, in order that
He might redeem those who were under it.’ (Gal 4:4, 5).N57
Also as Paul said in his monumental polemic epistle to the churches in Galatia
on salvation by grace through faith alone, such an understanding would “set
aside the grace of God” and actually mean that Christ had died in vain (Gal
2:21). And also as Paul said twice for an emphatic warning against such
a heresy: ‘let a messenger with such a message be anathema’ (Gal 1:8
& 9); and that is even if he (or
she) appears to have come down from heaven (vs. 8). That is because any
messenger that had truly "come down from heaven" would not be ‘distorting/perverting
the Gospel of Christ’ with such teachings (vs. 7), or even be coming close to
remotely suggest that what Jesus had done “once for all” (Heb 10:10) was
insufficient and in vain, especially since they would have had a behind the
scene look all that took place at Calvary. Such a messenger with this
message would rather have come form the infamous “abyss.”R58
It must also be kept in mind here that Paul had made this strong reprimand at a
time when the full meaning of the sacrifice of Jesus Christ was not yet fully
understood and sacrifices were still being offered in the Temple, even by
Christians. So then how much more then should this warning be heeded today,
2000 years later, when the meaning of this eternal event has fully been
revealed!
So really, the last
thing that a Christian should be doing today is encouraging the rebuilding of a
Temple in Jerusalem, for the reviving of bloody animal sacrifices and
other sin-offerings. Instead Christians should be trying to help the people of
the Jewish nation understand what Jesus of Nazareth had “caused to cease” (Heb
7:26, 27) when He was redeeming all of us from the curse of the law by Himself
becoming a curse for us and hanging on the “cursed tree.” (Gal 3:13; cf. 1 Pet
2:24).
The Year of the Crucifixion
We have thus far seen
that the prediction of the cessation of sin-offerings by the Messiah in Dan
9:27 was a clear reference of the effects of Jesus’s sacrificial death on the
cross, and now, since the prophecy
specified that this event would occur in the “midst” of the final week, we
therefore have to verify if the theological fulfillment of this prediction
harmonizes with its chronological specification. This can be done by
determining the actual year of the crucifixion.
Due to the fact that
varying dates for the year of the crucifixion have been suggested (ranging from
21 A.D. to 36 A.D.R59), an
original dating of the crucifixion will have to be done here.
Since Pontius Pilate, who reigned from 27 A.D. to 37 A.D.,R60 was in office at the time of Christ’s
trial (Matt 27:2), and since we have already established that the baptism of
Christ historically occurred in the year A.D. 27,R61
we can therefore, theoretically, narrow down the range of possible dates
for the crucifixion from 27 A.D. to 37 A.D.N62
The first step that has
usually been taken in dating the crucifixion has been to determine the exact
date of the month, and also the exact day of the week on which it took place.
The exact determination of this has been greatly hampered by the apparent fact
that there is a dating discrepancy between the Synoptic gospels (Matthew, Mark
and Luke) and the Gospel of John. This is because of the fact that while these
four gospels all agree that the crucifixion took place on a Friday afternoon,S63
and that Jesus partook of a meal, “the Last Supper,” with His disciples on the
night before the crucifixion, and prior to being arrested,S64
there is an apparent contradiction as to the actual calender date of the Last
Supper. The Synoptic Gospels seem to say that Jesus had this Last Supper “on
the first (lit. foremostN65) (day)” of the [Feast of]
Unleaven Bread”S66 (which was the day of PassoverN67), while the Gospel of John, on the other hand, indicates that this Last Supper took place “before the Passover,” and before the Passover Lamb was eaten (John 13:1 & 18:28). Since the Jews had been instructed to observe the Passover on the 14th day of the month of Nisan (Exod 12:6), and also sacrifice and eat the Passover Lamb on that day (vss. 6, 8), this therefore would mean that the Matthew, Mark, and Luke had said that the Last Supper had occurred on the evening of Nisan 14, and that the crucifixion had occurred on the afternoon of Nisan 15, while John would have (contrarily) said that the Last Supper had occurred on the evening of Nisan 13, and the crucifixion on the afternoon of Nisan 14.
Various propositions
have been made over the years to try to resolve this discrepancy, but the one
suggestion that actually does resolve it quite neatly is the one that takes
into account that there existed two methods of reckoning a day throughout Bible
times, including in the time of Jesus.R68 One of these methods was
the "sunrise-to-sunrise" reckoning which would consider a new day to
begin in the morning while the other method was the
"sunset-to-sunset" reckoning which began a new day in the evening.
(The sunrise calender would be half a day ahead of the sunset calender). It is
believed that the Galileans and the Pharisees, used the sunrise-to-sunrise
method to reckon their days, whereas the Judeans and the Sadducees used the
sunset-to sunset method.R69 Accordingly, Nisan 14 would have begun on
the Thursday morning of the Passion Week for the Galileans and Pharisees, while
it would have begun on the evening of that Thursday for the Judeans and
Sadducees. This would mean that Jesus and His disciples, who were Galileans,
would have prepared for their Passover Supper starting on that Thursday morning
and would have had their supper later on in the evening of that day (Matt
26:17, 20; Mark 14:12, 16, 17; Luke 22:7, 8, 13-15), while the Judeans and Sadducees
would have eaten their Passover on the evening of their Nisan 14 which would
only come on the following Friday evening. So they would indeed not yet have
eaten their Passover Supper when Jesus was being tried in Pilate’s court as
John had said (John 18:28). They would instead still be in the preparation
stages of this Supper at the time of the crucifixion (19:14).R70
So what seems to have
been the case in the Passover Supper storyline between John and the Synoptic
Gospels is that John was retelling the Passion story according based on a
sunset-to-sunset method, while the Synoptic Gospels had used a
sunrise-to-sunrise method.
So based on this
resolution, the final events in the public ministry of Jesus would have
occurred on the following days and dates:
[Blue= dates of sunset
reckoning/Red= dates
of sunrise reckoning]
Now while this resolves the problem of the
discrepancy between the Synoptics and John concerning the date of the Last
Supper it goes cause a dilemma as to the actual calender date of the
crucifixion. Did it take place on Nisan 15 as the sunrise reckoning indicates
or on the Nisan 14 of the sunset reckoning. This is somewhat easily resolved based
on the fact that both the Synoptics and John demonstrated in the rest of their
Gospels that they (personally) subscribed to the sunrise reckoning.N71 This would then mean that the Gospel writers
would have unanimously and personally considered the crucifixion to have taken place on the
calender date of Friday, Nisan 15, even though, as we have seen, John had
chosen (for some reason) to retell in his Gospel, the Last Supper event,
according to the sunset reckoning.
With a date for the
crucifixion established, the next traditional step that has been taken by
commentators (who had actually mostly concluded a Friday, Nisan 14 date) has
been to find a year in the Jewish first century calender, preferably in the
decade of the 30's, in which Nisan 14 fell on a Friday but since no first
century calender of the Jews actually exist today, the best that these
commentators have been able to do has been to scientifically and mathematically
reconstruct a calender and base their choice for the year for the crucifixion
on it. Unfortunately, as Roger T. BeckwithB72 (and also the US Naval
Observatory-Astronomical Application Department)W73 have separately
pointed out, this apparently “scientific” method actually cannot be depended
upon to provide a definite solution to dating the crucifixion since such a scientifically-based
calender is actually not a precise reconstruction of the actual,
or better real, calender of the Jews in the first century.
This is because the
Jews used a very arbitrary method in reckoning their calender which greatly
depended on conditions that cannot be figured out today, and therefore cannot
be taken into consideration by scientifically reconstructed calenders. The main
problem being that the Jews began a new month based on the visual observations
of the crescent of a new moon: the “new light,”R74 and if the
atmospheric conditions were not favorable to observe this new crescent, then
the first day of the month would be delayed by a day or so. Today, since there
is absolutely no way of determining what the daily atmospheric conditions of
Palestine were like at that time, it is therefore impossible to know which
months, in the first century, missed the first day of the appearance of the
moon due to bad weather and beclouded skies.R75
This arbitrary and
unscientific way in which the Jews reckoned their calender has indeed caused
many problems among commentators today, and therefore no two reconstructed
calender seem to agree with each other and, there is obviously no standard that
can be used to determine which one of them is the most accurate. This has then
led to various years being suggested for the crucifixion. For example, while
some commentators, insist that only 30 A.D. can be viewed as
the year of the crucifixion,R76 others have come to
see some astronomical problems with that year,R77 or have calculated
that Nisan 14, that year, fell on a Thursday.R78
The same is true for
the year A.D. 33 since commentators have said, based on their
varying calenders and calculations, that their day for the crucifixion-Nisan 14
in A.D. 33- could have either fallen on a Thursday R79
or a Friday,R80 or even on a Saturday, April 4.B81
The astronomical calculations that led to the choice of A.D. 33 are at times also based on the assumption that the Jewish calender
of the time of Jesus was calculated exactly the same way as the revised one
which came into use centuries after the death of Christ, but this was actually
not the case.R82
Those who choose the
year A.D. 33 also further assume that there was no intercalary
month in A.D. 33,R83 but this conclusion
cannot be proven today as it cannot be shown through scientific methods that
the year A.D. 33 was not given an extra month (intercalated). The
Jewish calender at times included this extra (intercalary) month for various
arbitrary and unscientific reasons which indicated whether or not signs of
Spring had appeared yet by the end of the twelfth month of the year
(Adar=Feb./Mar).R84 Examples of these reasons are: (1) the
immaturity of the corn crops; (2) the immaturity of the fruit trees; (3) the
remoteness of the Spring equinox;N85 (4) the Passover ovens not
yet being dry; (5) the Jews from the Dispersion (Jews outside of Jerusalem),
who were on their way to Jerusalem had not arrived yet; (6) the roads and
bridges leading to Jerusalem were still in need of repairs after the winter.R86
Since Jewish first century calenders do not exist today, and since the
reasons for intercalation were not fixed reasons, it is therefore impossible to
determine which year in the first century was intercalated. So this
unattainable certainty would obviously cause a great discrepancy between a
scientifically reconstructed calender of the first century and what would be
the actual one.
Also concerning the
year of A.D. 33, it has been reasonably argued that since the year
A.D. 34 was a sabbatical year,R87 and since it
had become prohibited to intercalate a sabbatical year or the year following
it,R88 i.e., A.D. 34 and 35, because of the
scarceness of crops caused by the non-sown sabbatical year (Lev 25:1-7); then
the year preceding this sabbatical year (A.D. 33) would more
than likely have been intercalated, in order to maximize the harvest of that
year and thus compensate for the upcoming two "unintercalable" years.
This would then mean that the Passover in A.D. 33 would not have
fallen at its regular time, before the Spring equinox, and it therefore would
not for certain have fallen on a Friday.R89
Therefore, based on all
of these reasons which show that the scientific method for dating the
crucifixion is greatly dependent on inaccurate calender reconstructions, this
method cannot be considered as a reliable one.R90 So in order to
determine the year of the crucifixion, we are therefore left only with the
internal evidence provided by the gospels account. Since we have already seen
that the baptism of Christ took place in A.D. 27, we would then
just have to determine from the gospels the actual duration of Christ’s public
ministry and then add this total to the date of the baptism in order to arrive
at the calender year when His public ministry came to an end, and thus the year
when the crucifixion took place..
Of the four gospel
accounts, the gospel of John provides the most detailed chronology for
Christ’s public ministry as it names the major feasts (mostly pilgrimage feast)
that Jesus attended during His
ministry.S91 It is specifically the Passover feasts that John
names that will help to determine the
length of Christ’s public ministry since their every occurrence would indicate
that another year in Christ’s ministry had gone by.
The first Passover that
John mentions is in John 2:13, which we have already discussed in great detail,R92
and seen that based on the chronological statement provided in John 2:20,
it had occurred in the year A.D. 28.R93
The next Passover that
is explicitly mentioned by John is in John 6:4, but prior to the mention of
this feast there is another “feast of the Jews” that is mentioned in John 5:1,
that based on a comparison of key statements in John 4:35, 5:1 and 6:4 seems to
have been the Passover Feast in A.D. 29. This is seen in more
detail as follows:
Following His stay in
Jerusalem for the Passover (John 2:13-3:21), Jesus is said to then have
ministered in the surrounding area in Judea (John 3:22). Then after His stay
there, He left the area of Judea and headed north to His hometown of Galilee,
but on His way there He stayed a while
in Samaria where He met the Samaritan woman at the well. (See John 4:3, 4ff).
During this stay Jesus made a statement that gives us a clue to the time of the
year when this visit had occurred. Speaking to His disciples, He said in John
4:35:
“Do you not [habitually] say, 'There are still
four months and then comes the harvest'? Behold, I say to you, lift up your
eyes and look at the fields, for they are already white for harvest.” (NASB)N94
Based on the fact that
the present tense verb “say” hereB95 is understood as referring
to a customary action and thus is classified syntactically as a Customary
PresentR96 an since logically a “four-month”
statement is made ... four months before the mentioned event, and since the
force in using an habitual four-month statement occurs when it is referred in
the time when this statement is “habitually”
made; and also further since the grain harvest in Palestine occurs in April and
May, then it is apparent that here Jesus had made use of an observation that
had very recently been made by the disciples themselves
concerning the upcoming harvest,N97 then it can be concluded
here that this exchange and therefore this entire episode had occurred either
January or February, of now the newly turned year: A.D. 29.
Now after
completing His trip to Galilee (John 4:43ff), John then says that Jesus
returned to Jerusalem because there was a feast of the Jews. (John 5:1). Since
Jesus actually made a special trip to Jerusalem for this feast then this more
than likely was one of the major Spring pilgrimage feasts, either
Passover or Pentecost. Now a comparison of John 5:1 and 6:4 show that this was
the Passover feast. In John 6:4, the gospel writer John apparently made a
explanatory clarification of the phrase “a feast of the Jews”N98 which he had mentioned back in John 5:1 but not so specifically.. He says there that: “Now the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was at hand.” This phrase in somewhat strange because the intended readers of John’s Gospel, established early Christians where fully aware that the Passover was a feast of the Jews. Furthermore when he had first made a reference to the Passover in his gospel in John 2:13, he did not add this additional explanatory clause. It therefore appears that in making this additional statement in John 6:4, John was trying to explain to his readers that the “feast of the Jews” which he had mentioned earlier in his account had also been a Passover feast. The rules of Greek syntaxR99 does indeed allow for this as a definite article could be used to remind or point the reader back to who or what had been mentioned previously. This function of the definite article is known as an “anaphoric” use which means “to bring back, or bring up,” and, interestingly enough, this previous mention would have been in an indefinite form (case in point- “a feast”). So rather than going back and inserting the whole phrase “the Passover,” or a definite article in John 5:1, John simply made an explanatory, anaphoric correction in John 6:4 which then would make his statement there fully read as:
“Now, the Passover, (which also was the feast
of the "feast of the Jews" previously mentioned [5:1]N100), was at hand,”
So in summary the “feast
mentioned” in John 5:1 was explained in John 6:4 to have been a Passover feast
and it would have occurred in A.D. 29.N101
Now, in continuing with
our chronology here, all of this would in turn mean that the Passover mentioned
in 6:4 would have occurred in A.D. 30) and therefore the last
Passover of Christ’s ministry that is mentioned in John (12:1) would have been
the one of A.D. 31. This arrived at conclusion would therefore
indicate a date of A.D. 31. for the crucifixion of
Christ.
This Spring of A.D. 31. date is one that concretely supported by a statement that Jesus
made in Luke 13:31-33, and which like the one in John 4:35 contains datable and
chronological indications.
At that time some
Pharisees came to Jesus and advised Him to:
This warning was made
after Herod had already martyred John the Baptist for the Synoptic Gospels
indicate that it was around the time of John’s death that Herod first
"heard the report about Jesus" and feared that it was John the
Baptist who had risen from the dead. (Matt 14:1, 2; Mark 6:14-16; Luke 9:7-9).
Now a comparison of the Synoptic Gospels’ storyline following this event with
John’s Gospel, help us to determine the exact year when this statement was
made. Since they first all stated that the event in Christ’s public ministry
that immediately followed this report of John’s death to Jesus was the feeding
of the 5000+ (Matt 14:12ff, Mark 6:32ff, Luke 9:10ff), and the Gospel of John
goes on to indicate that this feeding of the 5000+ took place a few days before
the Passover feast of John 6:4 (cf. John 6:1-4), which we have demonstrated was
the Passover of A.D. 30.; and since
Luke, who in his gospel was writing “a sequential (kathexesN103)
account” of the life of Christ (Luke 1:3), places the exchange between Christ
and the Pharisees (Luke 13) after the event of the feeding of the 5000+ (Luke
9:10-17), it is therefore evident here that the exchange here between Jesus and
the Pharisees had taken place after the Passover of A.D. 30, and also very late in Christ’s public ministry.
Now of the two
statements in Luke 13:32, 33 that Jesus made in response to this warning of the
Pharisees, the one in verse 32, was, as we will see, a figurative allusion, by
Jesus, to the overall time that had divinely been appointed for Him to minister
publicly.R104 A literal translation of this statement
actually said:
“Go and tell that fox,N105 Behold, I cast out
demons and perform healings today and
tomorrow and the third, I will myselfN106 bring to an end [or
‘finish’].” [i.e.s]
The precise
chronological significance of this statement of Jesus is fully revealed by the
fact that although He had been anointed for His ministry at the time of His
baptism,S107 and before the event of the wedding
feast at Cana in early 28 B.C., He still refused at first
to perform any "signs" (miracles) at that wedding feast because, as
He said to Mary, His “hour had not yet come” (John 2:4). John then went on to
say that after Jesus went ahead and performed this miracle, that this was the beginning
of His signs which manifested His glory (vs. 11). On the other hand,
shortly after this wedding feast, Jesus went up to Jerusalem for the Passover,
and, apparently, willingly performed some “signs” there (John 2:13, 23).
Since, based on John 6:2, where it is seen that these “signs” also included healing
miracles, it then becomes apparent that Jesus knew that He was suppose to only
start performing miracles at the time of the Passover of A.D. 28 and that, from that date on, He would have three full years
to carry out His public ministry.
So if we started to
count off this set time of exactly three years from that beginning Passover of A.D. 28, it is seen that indeed, this is precisely the time that had passed
from that first Passover to the last one in A.D. 31, as the
following table demonstrates:
Year
#1- Passover A.D. 28 -to- Passover A.D. 29
Year
#2- Passover A.D. 29 -to- Passover A.D. 30
Year
#3- Passover A.D. 30 -to- Passover A.D. 31
Thus the three “days”
that Jesus mentioned in Luke 13:32 would have actually been a symbolical
representation of this three-year period and He therefore would have been
explicitly using the symbolic/prophetic day-year principle here!
The statement that
Jesus then further made in Luke13:33 went on to emphasize that He indeed had
been given three full years to accomplish His public ministry, and that
this period had started and ended at the Passover feasts. Whereas Jesus was
using symbolic language in the statement of verse 32, it is obvious that He was
here using literal time in verse 33, even though this statement was expressed
in a similar way to the symbolic statement in verse 32. He added:
“Nevertheless, I must journey today and
tomorrow and the following; for it is not acceptable that a prophet should
perish outside of Jerusalem.”
The Greek word dei is
translated here as "I must," and literally means: "it is
necessary,"R108 but when it is used in a theological
context, as it is here, then it has the extended meaning of: "it is in
God's plan."R109 Examples of this extended meaning for dei
could be seen in passages like (1) Luke 4:43 where Jesus actually meant
"it was in God’s plan" (dei) for Him to preach the kingdom of
God to other cities also, because it was for this purpose that He had been
sent, and (2) John 3:14 where Jesus said that "it was in God’s plan"
(dei) for Him to be “lifted
up” as the serpent of Moses was lifted up in the wilderness (cf. John 12:34),
and so on.S110 Since the stops in Jesus’s
upcoming itinerary from Jerusalem (Luke 13:22) and back would actually take him
more than 3 days, as He would raise Lazarus in Bethany after a 4-day delay
(John 11:1-44); and also heal the blind Bartimaeus (Mark 10:46-52, Luke
18:35-43), and visit Zacchaeus, in Jericho (Luke 19:1-10); which was
about a three-day journey from Bethany; and then “six days” before His
final Passover in Jerusalem (John 12:1) He would return to Bethany and see Mary
and Martha (John 11:55-12:1);N111 it therefore becomes
self-evident that Jesus had not here said that it would only be three literal
days before He would return Jerusalem and die, but rather that despite Herod’s
present desire to put an end to His public ministry, it was contrarily in God’s
overriding and foreordained plan that He would journey for a few more days,
for: “today and tomorrow and the following [necessary days],” until He should
return to Jerusalem during the Passover Celebration and at that time be put to
death as it had been precisely planned.N112
So in summary, Jesus had essentially said in these two
verses in Luke 13 that His ministry would last for three full years (from the
Passover of A.D. 28) and that it would not be prematurely aborted by
anyone, but that He would Himself bring it to an end by allowing Heaven’s
mandatory plan to be accomplish at the end of these 3 years.S113
Many times during His public ministry, Jesus alluded to this notion that He was
journeying according to a set chronological time clock, as we saw earlier,R114
and that His end would not come before the appointed time. For example in John
11, when He was about to go to Bethany to raise Lazarus, His disciples were
afraid that if He returned to Bethany, He would be put to death by the Jews who
were seeking to take His life there (John 11:7, 8), but to this He replied: “Are
there not twelve hours in a day, etc...”
(vs. 9),
meaning that as long as He continued to walk in the "light" of
His Father's will, His final hour would not come before its time.S115
If we now add to this
period of three years the period of six months that had elapse between Christ’s
Fall baptism in 27 A.D. to His first Passover in the
Spring of 28 A.D., then we can see that this would total a period of 3½
years. This would then mean that 3½ years had elapsed between Christ’s baptism
(in the Fall season of 27 A.D.) and His crucifixion (in the
Spring season of 31 A.D.). This would
harmonize perfectly with the prophetic prediction in Dan 9:27 which said that
the Messiah's significant death would occur in the middle of last prophetic
week; i.e., 3½ years after His coming on the scene as the Messiah. (Dan 9:25).
Also, Jesus seemed to
have used the imagery of the parable of the fig tree in Luke 13:6-9, to make an
allusion to a period of about 3-4 (or possibly 3½) years of a ministry to
Jewish Nation, which apparently was an allusion to the combination of His
ministry with that of John the Baptist. John had started this fig tree
symbolism when he said to some of the hypocritical people that had come to him
to be baptized:
“You brood of vipers, who warned you to flee from the
wrath to come? Therefore bring fruits in keeping with repentance; and do begin
to say to yourselves, ‘We have Abraham for our father,’ for I say to you, that
God is able from these stones to raise up children to Abraham. And also the
axe is already laid at the root of the trees; every tree therefore that does
not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.” Luke 3:7-9 (NASB) [i.e.s].
Jesus continued this
symbolism of the Jewish Nation as this fig tree by symbolically saying that if
it did not bear fruit in the fourth year, then it would be cut down.
With John the Baptist’ ministry having started a little before Christ’s
baptism; and continuing until (and after) Jesus began His starting in the
Spring of 28 A.D., (See John 3:22, 23) it can then be seen that these
two ministries did indeed fulfill this 'within-four-years' parable. Therefore
the cutting down of the symbolic fig tree (the Jewish nation), would have occurred
at the time of the rejection of Christ at His crucifixion in 31 A.D. and would therefore indeed have occurred within this four-year period.
So this death of Christ
in the Spring of 31 A.D. would therefore mean that He
was crucified exactly 69½ prophetic
weeks, or 486½ literal years, after the mōşā⊃ of the Seventy
Weeks in the Fall (Sept/Oct) of 457 B.C. as prophesied!
The chronology of this
prophecy could really not be any more precise!
The Results of
Rejecting the Messiah
Following the
chronological prediction of the exact time of the Messiah’s death, verse 27 of
Daniel 9 goes on to make an allusion to the judgement that was to come upon the
Jewish Nation and Jerusalem as a result of their rejection of the Messiah. The
next to last statement in Dan 9:27 is transliterated from the Hebrew as:
we⊂al kenap
šiqqûşîm meşōmēm
An analysis of the key
terms: kenap and meşōmēm, will
help us to arrive at the accurate translation and understanding of this phrase.
The Expression "kenap"
The expression kenap
has been defined by lexicographers as: "wing, skirt,
extremity, end,"B116 "wing, edge,
extremity,"B117 "wing, skirt, outermost
(edge),"B118
"wing, extremity,"B119 These definitions indicate that this
expression could be used both concretely and abstractively. It is used
concretely to refer to the "wings" of flying creatures,S120
or to a "skirt" or a "garment,"S121 and is also used
abstractively to describe God’s (wing of) protection and His deliverance.S122
The meaning for kenap that seems to best
harmonize with the context of Dan 9:27 is the one that indicates the
"extremity" of something. This meaning is seen in a statement found
in the apocryphal book Sirach (Ecclesiasticus) which says:
“Give a meal offering with a memorial and offer
a fat sacrifice to the utmost [kenap] of thy
means.”B123
Encouragement is given
here for a person to give until he or she reaches their highest (personal)
level (or capacity) for giving. It is in this sense that kenap
šiqqûşîm (“abominations”) in Dan 9:27 should be understood; that is as:
"the utmost-i.e., greatest, or most extreme, of
abominations." So this means that among the many abominations committed by
the Nation of Israel during their history (e.g., idolatry, faithlessness,
killing of prophets), we have to find here, one that God would considered as
the 'greatest', 'most extreme', or the 'most abhorring' to Him. Jesus gives us
a great indication as to what this capital sin would actually be as in the allegorical
parable of the wicked “tenant-farmers”R124 (Matt 21:33-44), which
allegorically depicted the long rebellious history of Israel as God’s chosen
people (cf. Isa 5:1-7). Jesus showed there that Israel repeatedly abused and
murdered the messengers, in the form of prophets, that God would send to them
(vss.34-36), yet God did not lose hope with them and kept on sending them in
order to preserve His people. It wasn’t until the wicked tenants of the
vineyard killed the vine owner’s own son that the vineyard was finally taken
away from them. Similarly, it wasn’t until Israel killed God’s own Son , the
greatest Prophet ever sent to them that God divorced Himself, and His kingdom
from them. So, unarguably, the "most abhorring" abomination
that Israel ever committed was when they rejected and killed Jesus the Messiah.
The Expression "mešōmēm"
Another key expression
that occurs in the phrase with kenap šiqqûşîm
is: mešōmēm. In its present form it is a combination of the (performative)
prefix mem (discussed below) and the expression šōmēm. This
expression šōmēm itself is one that occurs about 153 in the OT and has
usually been translated as: “to desolate” and
“a desolation.” Contextual analysis of the expression šōmēm
reveal that it is actually more of a theological term that stands in-between
the Hebrew expression for a “desert or wilderness” -midbārE125
and the one for a “physical destruction” -horbāh. When
šōmēm is used in relation to a non-personal subject, it is consistently
used to represent an area that was (1) adequately populated, and/or (2) fully
functional and/or (3) thriving, but then that has suddenly, forcefully, and
vindictively been depopulated, disbanded and/or deprived of life and activity.S126
This expression šōmēm therefore consistently used to refer to something
losing a key agent that made it properly and fully functional.S127,
N128 In deeper theological contexts, šōmēm is repeatedly
used to represent a last resort punishment of God on a rebellious community,
which eventually leads to its utter physical destructions.S129
When it is used in reference to a sanctuary it specifically refers to it as
having been abandoned (e.g., Dan 8:13; 9:17, 18). This use for šōmēm in
Lev 26:31 further shows that this abandonment or "desolation" of God
of His sanctuary is that He no longer partakes of its services.
Notwithstanding the
theological meaning for šōmēm in the Hebrew OT, the authors of the Greek
version of the OT repeatedly used the Greek word “erēmos,” which
literally means "a desert" or "a wilderness" to express the
theological Hebrew expression šōmēm. This is also the case with the New
Testament authors as erēmos was used with both a literal meaning,S130
and also with a more theological meaning.S131
Concerning the
performative prefix mem, it is one that is used with a ‘specifying
force.’B132 It is used to make the
application of the expression that it is attached to be more vivid and
definite. It can be used to indicate that the word is either:
môšāb (an “assembly”);
(2) an instrument
term- e.g., mapetēha (a “key”);
ma⊃kelet (a “knife”);
(3) and an abstraction- e.g., mišepāţ (a “judgement”); mar⊃eh (an “appearance”);
So the expression mešōmēm in
Dan 9:27 would be identified with one of these more specific forces for its
root "desolation" meaning and interestingly enough, all of these
three forces have been argued for by various translators/interpreters of this
verse as it has been translated as:
Many interpreters have
quickly chosen the second option with the meaning of "someone who
makes desolate" but in doing that, they have inaccurately applied this
expression to a human figure.R138 This forcefully goes
against the root/inherent aspect of the expression šōmēm since it is a
stative expression (describing a state) and not a fientive one
(describing an activity).R139 So an ‘instrument used
for desolating’ here would actually have to be ‘a circumstance that
bring about a desolation’ as is the case in Dan 11:31 which speaks of: ‘[an] abomination
that makes desolate.’ (cf. e.g., RSV). To make this “instrument” refer
to a person, a single person no less, as the singular form here indicates, would
come to make that person be entirely responsible for that desolation as the
Piel verb indicates. The Old Greek of Daniel (ca. 150 B.C.) and the Theodotion version (ca. 180 A.D.) both saw this
expression in Dan 9:27 would indeed be best interpreted as a stative and
therefore translated it as: “erēmos” (understood theologically as: “a
desolation’).R140 So these more syntactically accurate
translations therefore rule out the interpretations of this expression as a
reference to a human historical figures such as: Antiochus IV Epiphanes (2nd
century B.C.-Historical-Critical); Flavius Titus (70 A.D.-Historicist-Messianist); or an Apocalyptic figure such as an alleged
Future Antichrist (???- Futurist-Dispensationalist).R141 So only a stative and therefore non-personal
event can be taken into consideration as a possible “instrument” meaning for
the prefixed expression mešōmēm.
Despite this slight
narrowing down of translation possibilities here, there are still theoretically
200+ possible interpretations/translations that can be made of the phrase: we⊂al kenap
šiqqûşîm mešōmēm due mainly to the flexible opening waw-conjunction+⊂al-preposition combination (we⊂al), and the mem prefixed
expression mešōmēm. As we mentioned earlier, the waw-conjunction
can be translated to function conjunctively, sequentially, disjunctively
or expegetically.R142 and Waltke and O’ConnorB143
have made allusions to about 17 slightly varying ways in which the preposition ⊂al could actually
function as.N144 Then there are on top of that the 3
possible meanings that the mešōmēm could have. Hence the 200+
(4x17x3) translation possibilities here. So the actual
interpretation/translation of this phrase will have to be determined by the its
immediate Messianic context. Then this conclusion can be verified by its larger
Biblical/Historical-fulfilment context. So after various combination attempts,
the one interpretation/translation of the phrase: we⊂al kenap
šiqqûşîm mešōmēm that best harmonizes with the overall
Messianic context here, and that can also be supported Biblically and
Historically is as follows:
we⊂al - "But because of"
[disjunctive-contrasting-waw + Cause-(reason) preposition]
kenap - "the most extreme of"
šiqqûşîm - "abominations"
mešōmēm
- "[.
. .] a desolate place."[a substantive of location]
There are two further
key syntactical observations that can be made about this phrase here based on
the fact that expression mešōmēm is grammatically identified
as a Polel participle.R145 First of
all, in reference to its participial aspect, since the immediate context
here is making a reference to a situation that is in fact future, and is
denoting a circumstance that accompanies
a future event, then it is a participle that can be labeled with the
Latin terms “futurum instans”B146 ("to also be present"). This function of the
participle expresses such an attending circumstance: (1) with specivity (i.e.,
"namely"); (2) with certainty; and (3) with immanency (i.e., an
inherently or naturally resulting circumstance). It also occurs with some logical
connection to another clause in the context. This kind of participle is also
best translated into English with the phrase “going to (be)-with stative
verbs.B147 So in reference to our present case, this would all come
to mean that: ‘the most extreme of abominations’ would right away, and automatically, lead to a place
becoming desolate.’
Now since the
expression mešōmēm is a Polel stem which is one that
is derived from the Piel verbal stem, it also share the same basic
characteristic functions of the Piel stem.R148 As we have explained before,R149
this is a stem that indicates an action that is “made to happen” as it would
ordinarily (or of itself) not take place. It is also an action whose effect
is “direct and immediate,” (i.e., instantaneous). Also since the expression šōmēm
in the simple Qal stem is intransitive, as its stative Qal
meaning of: “to be astonished”S150 does not govern an
object, it therefore goes on to form a “factitive Piel,”R151
which is a type of Piel that designates the “bringing about of a state
depicted by an adjective without regard to the process.”B152
This is different from the resultative Piel (form by transitive
Qal stem verbs) which designates the bringing about of the outcome of the action
indicated by the base root verb in question (i.e., the eventual outcome of a ‘desolation’
which the OT shows was complete depopulation and loss of communal life and
usually utter physical destruction.). Also in the Piel stem, the object or
receiver of this Piel stem "stative action" would then be passively
transposed into a new state or condition because it makes no contribution
to the notion expressed by the verb.B153 It is also "accidentally" transposed into this new state because this new state is one that is not “essential” to it (i.e., it is foreign to it and uncharacteristic of it).
In further
understanding of the use of the Polel stem, contrasted to the Poel
stem, rather than denoting a sort of habitual/profession action/state as this
latter stem, is rather denotes a sudden/instantaneous, especially hostile,
transformation into that state of profession, to aim/endeavor to achieve an
action/state.R154 So it would be indicating something that
is suddenly transformed into a new state that it was not before.
So in summary, this would all mean that the
meaning of the factitive Polel participle mešōmēm in Dan 9:27 would be
indicating ‘a place’ that is, suddenly, passively and accidentally
(which could be understood as: ‘forcefully’) made to be transposed into a new
state of being ‘desolated.’ This would
mean that it would be ‘deserted’ or ‘deprived’ of what made it “thrive,” “functional,”
and thus also “respectful.” So based on all of this, the complete translation
of the predictive statement: we⊂al kenap
šiqqûşîm mešōmēm in Dan 9:27 would be:
“but because of the most extreme of
abominations there is going to be a place that suddenly will
(forcefully) be made to become desolate.”
So after the Angel
Gabriel would have mentioned the major triumphs of the Messiah by Him (1)
causing a covenant to prevail with “many” and (2) causing “sin offerings” to
cease, he would then have sadly announced the great consequences for the
predicted occurrence of “the most
extreme of abominations”which was the crucifixion of Christ.N155
This specific
prediction was fully and accurately fulfilled by Jesus when, a few days before
His crucifixion He indicated to the Jewish nation that they had come to pass a
point of no return by now sealing their rejection of Him. He expressed this new
"desolate" condition of Jerusalem, the Temple and the Jewish nation
in His passionate and memorable Lament as He then said:
“O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the one who kills the
prophets and the one that stones those
who have been sent to her! How often I wished to gather your children together
the way a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not willing!
Behold! Your house is being left unto you desolate [erēmos]! For
I say to you, you will never come to perceive Me, from now on until [a day
when] (you should) say, "Having been blessed is He coming in the name of
the Lord!”N156 Matthew 23:37-39; (=Luke 13:34-35; cf. Jer
22:5).N157
Here, Jesus directly
linked the "desolation" of Jerusalem with the departure of God from the Temple. As we have
seen, this "departure of God” was later concretely indicated when the veil
in the temple was torn in two.S158 From then on, He no longer honored their
Temple services (cf. Lev 26:31), but since Jesus used a present indicative
tense to say: “your house is being left to you desolate,”R159
which is a tense that is used to “assert something which is occurring while the
speaker is making the statement,”R160 and since this statement
was made early during Passion Week (Monday), it then was apparently the
case that God had actually deserted the Jerusalem’s Temple on that very day and
at the very time when Jesus had made His statement.N161 This is supported
by the fact that Matthew then indicated in his Gospel that after this
statement, Jesus then “went out from the Temple [Courts],” and preceded to tell
His disciples about the sure (“Amēn, Amēn”) future utter destruction of
the Temple edifice and its surrounding buildings (Matt 24:1, 2).
-----------
With this first part of the last statement in the Seventy Week prophecy so accurately interpreted we can now figured out exactly the translation of the next two statement that follows in Dan 9:27 namely:
we⊂ad-kālāh weneherāşāh tittake
⊂al šōmēm
Unlike the statement
just prior to this one, which we have just interpreted, this statement only
contains a couple of minor flexible expressions, namely the conjunction+
preposition combination we⊂ad, the conjunction
we that is attached to the
expression neherāşāh and
the ⊂al preposition. Since this preposition is
in a construct relationship with the expression šōmēm (‘desolate’)
it somewhat narrows down its possible interpretive functions here. Again various
translation combination attempts would reveal that this phrase would be best
translated into English as:
we⊂ad- "and even before"
-[conjunctive-waw+ Temporal preposition ‘marking
the time before which
an event takes place.’B162].
kālāh-
"the utter
end."S163
weneherāşāh-
"Then,
that which had been (firmlyS164) determined,"
[sequential.-waw].
tittake- "will be poured out"
šōmēm- "the desolate."
[‘...And even before the utter end. Then that
which had been (firmly) determined, will poured out on the desolate.’]
The opening statement: “And
even before the utter end” would be continuing from the statement made just
before it which had said that ‘there would be a place that would be made to be
desolate. This “utter end” would be the war that was spoken of back in
verse 26 when the Temple would then be utterly destroyed. As we have seen Jesus
declared Jerusalem and the Temple to be desolate as early as 31 A.D., but they both still continued to stand intact physically for close to 40
more years as if nothing had happened to them, yet they were still in a deep
state of desolation as they were completely lacking of God’s presence.
What is also
interesting to point out here is the use of Qal stems in two expressions
in the phrase: “poured out upon the desolate.” Since the Qal stem
indicates something that is not "caused" or "made to
happen," this would then be indicating here two "non-caused"
events, meaning a "non-caused" ‘pouring out’ event and a
"non-caused" ‘state of desolation.’ This would mean that at the time
when judgement would be “poured out upon the desolate” in 70 A.D., it would not be ‘caused to be poured out’ nor ‘made to be
poured out’ but would ‘naturally be poured out’ and on a Temple
that would then not have to then be ‘caused
to be desolate,’ or “made to be desolate’ but that would ‘already
be desolate.’ Also, with the verb
tittake (“poured out”) being in a (future) imperfect
tense,B166 this then meant that the future "pouring out" of
judgement on Jerusalem and the Temple would be a situation that would arise as
a ‘logical consequence of some other situation,’R167 which we have
already seen was the rejection of Christ as the Messiah back in 31 A.D..
So
based on all of this, the final prediction in the Dan 9:27 which immediately
followed the predictions about the triumph of the Messiah would say:
‘But because of the most extreme of abominations
there is going to be a place that is (forcefully) made to be desolate. And,
even before the utter end. Then that which has been determined will be poured
out on the place that is (already) desolate.’
Therefore, it is this
desolate condition of Jerusalem’ Temple that should be understood as the
predicted "desolation" in Dan 9:27. The eventual physical destruction
of the city in 70 A.D., by the Roman armies, was
only a logical, natural, and inevitable consequence of this previous abstract
desolation of the Temple. It had only been God's presence that had made the
Temple and thus the city “Holy.”
"The
Abomination of the Desolation"
[to Bdelugma th~~v ἐjrhmwsewv]
[to bdelugma tës erëmöseös]
Matt 24:15; Mark 13:14a; (Luke 21:20)
The expression “Abomination of Desolation” (“A of D”) is
one that is often cited in connection with the prophecies of Daniel where verse
9:27 (70 Weeks) & 11:31 (King North vs. South) are either one of the
claimed allusions or, relatedly, both. That of course all stems from the
admonition found in the Matthew account which says, (potentially by Jesus
himself, but not likely*), that: ‘the A of D was spoken by/through the prophet
Daniel’. In popular interpretational circles it is commonly thought, based
pointedly on Mark 13:14 rendering constructio ad sensum (‘(grammatical)
constructions according to sense’ rather than strict grammatical concord) this
statement this is to be a future antichrist (masculine) person (e.g., TDNT
1:600). However this belief by interpreters is actually circularly determined
by a supposed prophetical understanding. Upon a more indepth exegetical
studies, which give a more paramount influence to context, the conclusion that
it should instead be a constructio ad sensum in harmony with Luke’s
parallel account of this statement of Christ is best supported as it
says/explains there that this “A of D” is to be the “Roman armies” (neuter plural - Luke 21:20). Here,
succinctly, are the main supporting points for this understanding. (All of the
following exegetical points are contributive to the final translation from the
Greek as rendered in the section title above).
Morphological
-Istemi is a (class
v-6) mi-declension, and in the perfect active participle its inflections
are identical in the masculine singular accusative; nominative neuter
plural; and accusative neuter plural.R168 This therefore, by at least the possible
occurrence of a constructio ad sensum, allows for either one of these 3
to be applicable.
Background
-Luke’s account of the Olivet discourse appears to be Christ’s original,
straightforward statement to his disciples. Luke was writing a most personal
letter, to a ‘Roman Official’ who evidently was quite sympathetic to
Christianity, and quite apparently wanted to convert to it, (hence this
informational history by Luke), and apparently did convert as the dropping of “Most
Excellent” in Luke subsequent letter to him of Acts may suggest (Acts 1:1).R169 Therefore Luke would not have been fearful to be
quite straightforward with him and relate, verbatim, this most striking
prophetical statement of Christ. (Cf. Luke 19:41-44N170). On the other hand, it appears that Matthew and Mark
chose to “encrypt” Christ’s plain statement in their (intendedly) more “open
letter” accounts, written for Jewish and Roman audiences, respectively, for
reasons of not attracting unwanted legal/state attention to themselves, if they
would have similarly so plainly spoken of ‘the Roman Army’s actions against the
Jewish capital city.’ This encryption can be seen in the statement: “let the
reader understand”.F171
Context
-The common titular rendition
of “Abomination of Desolation”, though quite convenient and ingrained by long
time mention, is not a normal/default reading here and would in fact be the
only time that such an: ‘article-accusative noun-article-genitive
noun’ construction is rendered as a title and not simply as a regular prose in,
at least, the NT. The expression is indeed specific here as the Greek articles
indicate, but is merely referring to specific/known terms and not expressing
titles. It is thus solely referring to ‘the most abhorring part of the
desolation that was spoken by Daniel the prophet.’ And this “abomination = most
abhorring part” was ‘the end in an overflowing war and utter physical
destruction,’ as priorly explained in Dan 9:26b.
Lexical
-The term “standing” does not
only have to describe ‘a physical posture of a person,’ but is also used to
refer to things “being/remaining established, set up”R|S172
-In fact, from comparative
lexical studies, the 2nd form for istemi as istano seems
to be strictly intended/used for the sense of mere standing (posture) vs.“being
established”.
Grammatical
So, based on these
understandings and possibilities so far, it can be seen that Mark, in 13:14,
could just as easily have chosen to “encrypt” Christ’s (=Luke’s) plain
statement of “(Roman) armies” as a nominative/accusative neuter plural “estekota”
as these are identical in morphological form to the accusative neuter
singular.R173 Indeed Luke’s
explanatory “specification” makes this the most likely/probable possibility.
Syntactical
As Daniel Wallace, Greek
Grammar Beyond the Basics shows:
- The possible nominative
case participle can indeed be a constructio ad sensum. (Wallace, 652)
-As a nominative, it can also
be functioning as a Nominative Absolute (nominativus pendens) as it ‘enunciates
the logical, and not grammatical, subject (i.e., the “armies” of Luke 21:20)
(cf. Wallace, 654). [= ‘these ones (= ‘the armies’)’].
-The participle can be a “Participle
of Means” in showing ‘by what means’ one would come to “see the most abhorring
part of the desolation spoken by Daniel,” i.e, ‘by the means of them (i.e., the
Roman Armies) having been established’ (cf. Wallace, 652)
Historical
-Jewish Christian were able
to escape the siege on Jerusalem by escaping to the transjordanian city of
Pella in northern Perea when they saw the first siege attempt of Cestius that
was followed by a withdrawal, and heed Christ’s instructions in Luke 21:20, 21.N174
Indeed here, in more
detail, in the writings of Church Fathers Eusebius of Caesarea (the
well-known Church historian writing in the early 4th century A.D.) and Epiphanius of Salamis (a bishop of the metropolis on the island of
Cyprus, who had previously lived in Palestine, and was writing
in the late 4th century A.D.),R175
it is recorded, based on two non-interdependent sourcesN176
that the Jewish Christian were divinely “commanded” to flee Jerusalem
(and Judea) “before the (outbreak) of the war” (i.e., before the siege of
Titus).
Eusebius says:
‘The people of the Church in Jerusalem, in accordance
with a certain oracle that was given through revelation to the approved (ones)
there [the prophets or apostles of the
Jerusalem Church], were commanded to migrate from the city before the war...’ B177
Epiphanius says:
‘For when the city was about to be seized by the
Romans, all the disciples were forewarned by an angel to migrate away from the
city, since it was about to be utterly destroyed.’N178
The following outline
of the four-year war period (66-70 A.D.) shows that this "Spirit-led" escape from
Jerusalem occurred sometime after the sudden retreat of Cestius and his
forces in November of 66 A.D.,N179 but sometime before
the Zealots came to be in control of Jerusalem starting in the Spring of 68 A.D. and prevented anyone from fleeing the city. R180 Based on Christ’
expressed concern towards the adversity fleeing during the winter conditions in
Judea (Matt 24:20; Mark 13:18), this divine warning was then more than likely
given to the Christians at the beginning of the Spring season of 67 A.D. as it is demonstrated below:
late Oct. 66 A.D. Cestius attacks Jerusalem 2.19.1 [#515] - 2.19.6 [#539]
early Nov 66 A.D. Cestius suddenly retreats 2.19.7 [#540] - 2.19.8 [#555]
Win. 66/67 A.D. Wars in and around
Galilee 2.20.1 [#556] - 4.2.5
[#120
[Escape of the Jerusalem
Church]
Wn/Sp 66/67- Spr 68 A.D. Civil
strife in Jerusalem 4.3.1
[#121] - 4.7.2 [#409]
Spr. 68 A.D. - Spr. 69 A.D. Roman Wars in Judea 4.3.3 [#410] - 4.9.9 [#555]
Spr. 69 A.D. - Spr. 70 A.D. Some Roman civil problem 4.10.1 [#585] - 4.11.5 [#663]
Spr. 70 A.D. - late Sum. 70 A.D. The Siege of Titus 5.1.1 [#1] -
6.8.5 [#408]
According to a reliableR182
Church tradition, these fleeing members of the Jerusalem Church temporarily
settled in a city called Pella which was located in the foothills east of the
Jordan River, about 17 miles south of the Lake of Galilee.N183
[See Map#3].
Setting
-The common assumption that ‘a
standing in the holy place/where they ought nought (Matt 24:15|Mar 13:14)
refers to an area in the Temple is not a very logical warning signal to
Christians as it would entail that the Roman armies had already taking full
control of the city of Jerusalem and thus the possibility of a flight by
Christians then would be practically impossible. Case in point, historically,
the Romans set up their pagan ensigns in the Temple area and worshiped them
only right after the war, when the Jewish Temple edifice had been
burnt down;R184
-However, the (anarthrous =
(non-articular)) “a place (topos) that is holy” (Matt 24:15) could easily
include the area just beyond the walls of Jerusalem which served as an open
square where judicial cases where heard and decided, even during Monarchial
times (e.g., 1 Kgs 22:10). So it would have equally been violated by the Roman
armies setting up camp, and their siege works there, starting with the military
contingent under Cestius in 66 A.D.R185
Final Translation:
All these contributing exegetical points lead to the
following (new) understanding/translation of Mark 13:14:
“When
you see the most abhorring part of the desolation that was spoken by the
Prophet Daniel by the means of them (i.e., the Roman armies - Luke 21:20)
having been established where they ought not (i.e., “in a place that is holy”
Matt 24:15)....”N186
The End of the
Seventy Weeks
With the final part of
the Dan 9:27 having been interpreted and confirmed historically, it would
therefore appear that the interpretation of the Seventy Week prophecy has
reached its end, but this then would mean that 3½ years of the prophecy had
remained unfulfilled as no event seemed to have mark the end of the prophecy
which would have fallen in the year 34 A.D. The death of
Christ in the Spring of 31 A.D. would seem to be a most
logical choice for its end, but as Charles Boutflower once stated, it was a
full 70 weeks that had been determined on the Jewish nation and not 69½.B187
Another seemingly logical choice for the end of the Seventy Weeks would have
been the decisive event of the predicted destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D., but that would then cause the overall time of the prophecy of 490
years to be stretched to 526 years. Since we have thus far seen that the
chronology of the prophecy has been quite literal in the number of years that
it covered, and that its historical fulfillments have had great chronological
precision and accuracy, it would then seem rather strange that the remaining 3½
prophetic weeks would now suddenly represent a period of 39 literal years
instead of 3½ years. What event then marks the end of the chronology of the
Seventy Weeks?
Since the four gospels
end their accounts of Christ’s life on earth 9 (at the most) 40 days after His
resurrection (Acts 1:3), we therefore have to turn to the historical book of
the Acts of the Apostles to see if in the events surrounding the rise of the
early Christian Church, there was an event that fulfilled the end of this
probationary time period for as Carl A. Auberlen had stated long ago concerning
the book of Acts: it “serves the same purpose in regard to the terminus ad
quemE188 [of the Seventy Weeks] as Ezra and
Nehemiah served for the terminus quoE189 [457 B.C].”B190
Indeed, in the book of
Acts we find a very interesting event that does provide a fitting end for the
490 years of probation that had been set apart for Jewish nation and the city
of Jerusalem. This event is the martyrdom of Stephen in the hands of the
Sanhedrin, the highest Jewish civil and religious court of the day.R191
We will first analyze this event from a theological perspective to see
if it does provide a fitting contextual end for this probation period, and then
we will analyze it from a chronological perspective to see if its
historical date harmonizes with the accurate reckoning of the Seventy Weeks.
When the brief
ministry, trial and death of StephenN192 is closely examined
here, there are amazingly, at least eight striking parallels that are seen
between Stephen and Christ that makes it evident that in Stephen, God raised up
a "type" of Christ in order to give the Jewish nation a final but
fair warning to help them realize the great Sin they had committed in rejecting
and crucifying Jesus of Nazareth.N193
These parallels are:
(1) Both Jesus and Stephen performed great "signs
and wonders"S194 and both had
a wisdom and a spirit that their adversaries could not resist.S195
(2) As mentioned before, both Jesus and Stephen were
tried by the Highest Jewish
court of their day, the Sanhedrin, and although the book of Acts doesn’t
specify who was presiding over Stephen’s trial, it was more than likely the
same High Priest, who had presided over the trial of Jesus: Caiaphas (Matt
26:3, 57) since he held this office the High priest in Jerusalem until the year
A.D. 36.R196 This Caiaphas
also took part in the trials of some of the followers of Christ shortly after
the feast of Pentecost of 31 A.D. (See Acts 4:6, 7).
(3) Both Jesus and Stephen were charged with the
similar false accusations of
blasphemy and of speaking against the Temple. (Compare Matt. 26:59-61
and Acts 6:11-14). Clearly no one in the NT Church since Jesus had raised this
crucial covenantal development and issue of the non-indispensability of the
physical Jewish Temple, which was indeed a Capital issue amongst the Jews.
(4) It was revealed to the accusers of Stephen and
Christ, through a sudden
manifestation of supernatural
physical glory, that they were both highly favored by God. Acts 6:15 says that
the face of Stephen shone like an angel during his trial; and similarly, when
Jesus was being arrested in the garden of Gethsemane, the gospel of John
(18:4-6) says that He asked the people who had come to arrest Him: “Who are you
looking for?” When they said: “Jesus of Nazareth,” He replied by literally
saying: “I Am” (ego eimi), which was a statement that unmistakably
identified Him as the Eternal, Self-Existent God of the Old Testament. (cf.
Exod 3:14). John then says that:
“when therefore He said to them 'I AM'- they
drew back and fell to the ground.”
Now what in Christ’s response would have caused this
armed mob to suddenly
“draw back and fall to the ground,” if it wasn’t that, at that very
moment, a supernatural sign of Divine glory and approval had been visibly
manifested? Interestingly enough a similar 'terror and falling-to-the-ground'
reaction happened to the soldiers who were at Christ’s tomb on the day of His
resurrection when as Matthew says “the angel of the Lord” descended to role
away the stone (Matt 28:2) and:
“the angel’s countenance was like lightning and
his clothing as white as snow and the guards shook for fear of him, and
became like dead men.” Matt 28:3 [i.e.s]
John the Revelator also had a similar
experience/reaction in Patmos when he saw
the glorified Christ in vision. At that time, he did not simply fall to
the ground at Jesus’s feet, but he “fell at His feet as dead.” (Rev 1:17
[i.e.s]).N197
It therefore is apparent that a similar demonstration
of divine approval had also
occurred with Jesus, at the time of His arrest in Gethsemane.
(5) There are also many similarities between the
speech that Stephen had made to
the Sanhedrin and Christ’s final warning to the Jewish leaders in the
parable of the wicked tenant-farmers (or “vinedressers”). (Matt 21:33-46).
Stephen began this speech by retelling the Sanhedrin
of how God had called
Abraham out of the land of the Chaldees to make of him a great nation
which would become His Chosen people. (Acts 7:2-16). Then he went on to tell
about the trials and rejections of the Patriarchs Joseph and Moses to point out
the fact that although these two great men had been despised and mistreated by
"Israel," they were still the ones that God had chosen to save the
nation (vss.17-36). Stephen emphatically pointed this out by saying that it
was:
“This Moses whom they had refused saying: ‘who
appointed you a ruler and a judge,’ it is this same one whom God sent to be a
ruler and a deliverer by the hand of the Angel who had appeared to him in the
thornbush.” (Acts 7:35)
Then Stephen went on to point out to them the Promise
of the coming of a
Messiah in human form as it had been emphasized by the prophecy of
Moses (vs. 37 cf. Deut 18:15); and after
reminding the religious leaders about Israel’s past acts of rebellion and apostasy (vss. 38-43), he then told them
about the limitedness of their present Temple (vss. 44-50).
Then after this he abruptly summed up his speech by
clearly pointing out the great
sin of the religious leaders and Israel and boldly saying:
“You stiff-necked and uncircumcised in heart
and ears! You always resist the Holy Spirit; as your fathers did, so do
you. Which of the prophets did your
Fathers not persecute? And they killed those who foretold the coming of the
Just One, of whom you now have become the betrayers and murderers who have
received the law by the direction of angels and have not kept it.” (Acts
7:51-53 cf. John 7:19)
This last statement led the Sanhedrin to turn a final
deaf ear to Stephen and seal
their rejection of him.
Jesus also, during His final moments with the Jewish
nation had given a very
similar message of warning to them in the parable of the wicked
tenant-farmers (Matt 21:33-46). At that time, He first spoke about the habitual
sin of Israel of rejecting the chosen ones that God had sent to save them (Matt
21:33-36). He then figuratively spoke of His coming rejection by Israel by
telling of the rejection and murder of the vineyard owner’s son (Matt 21:37-39).
He then spoke about the inevitable consequences of this last great rejection by
asking the question:
“Therefore, when the owner of the vineyard
comes, what will he do to those tenant-farmers?” (Matt 21:40).
To this the Jews replied:
“He will destroy those wicked men miserably and
lease his vineyard to other tenant-farmers who will render to him the fruits in
their seasons.” (Matt 21:41).
As the Jews had unknowingly pronounced their own
sentence of doom, Jesus
concluded His message of warning by saying:
“The stone which the builders rejected has
become the chief cornerstone. This was the Lord’s doing and it is marvelous in
our eyes. Because of this I say unto you, the kingdom of God will be taken from
you and given to a nation bearing fruits of it.” (Matt 21:42-45).
There are three further parallels between Christ and
Stephen that come to seal their
parallel divinely-appointed mission of warning to the Jewish nation.
(6) They both prayed an intercessory prayer for their
undeserving enemies (Luke
23:34 and Acts 7:60).
(7) They both commended their Spirit (lit. “breath”-
Gk. pneuma) to Heaven as
they were breathing their last (Luke 23:46-48 and Acts 7:59, 60), and
(8) As Stephen was about to die, he received a
glorious vision of heaven of the Son
of Man standingE198 at the right hand of God (Acts 7:55,
56). Passage like Isa 3:13 & 14 and Dan 12:1 shows that this “standing”
occurs when God is about to ‘enter into judgement’/“contend” (= Isa 3:13a) with
those who do wrong amongst or against His faithful people. I.e., this indicates
that judgement will be executed upon transgressors, and thus here
indicated that the Jewish people had sealed their doom warningly stated earlier
by Christ. This revealed development thematically also was a fulfillment of the
first part of the prophetic statement that Jesus had made to this same
Sanhedrin at the time of His trial by saying:
“Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will
see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds
of heaven.” Matt. 26:64 [i.e.s].
The parallel statement to this one that was made later
on by Stephen must have
reminded the Sanhedrin about their trial with Jesus of Nazareth, and
judging from the fact that, at both trials, they decided to carry out the death
sentence on Jesus and Stephen because of this statement. It must have seemed
like a déjà vu for them. (cf. Matt 26:65, 66 and Acts 7:57). But
tragically, they only showed with this Capital Punishment that they would have
repeated their past sin of crucifying Jesus, and they probably would have done
it with their own hands this time. Indeed with Stephen, this was really the
first full extent test of them on this regards, and they indeed again
completely failed.
Following this second
collective rejection of Christ by the Jewish religious leader, the book of Acts
goes on to say that ‘at that time a great persecution arose against the Church
which was at Jerusalem and they were all scattered throughout the regions of
Judea and Samaria ...’ (Acts 8:2) These believers who were then scattered went
everywhere preaching the gospel (Acts 8:3). So from that time on the good news
about Jesus Christ was not just limited to the city of Jerusalem and the Jewish
nation as it also began to be preached to other surrounding Gentile nations.
Therefore based on all
these parallels between Christ and Stephen, we can see that the event of
Stephen’s martyrdom does indeed provide a fitting theological or contextual end
for the probationary period of the Seventy Weeks, as it became a most striking
reminder to the Jewish Sanhedrin about their rejection of Jesus Christ. The
question that now needs to be answered is: Does this event fit the
chronological specification of the prophecy?
The Date of Stephen’s
Martyrdom
The dating of Stephen’s martyrdom is largely
determined by the date of Paul’s conversion since the wording of Luke’s account
in the book of Acts concerning this event strongly indicates that this conversion
took place a short while after Paul had witnessed the stoning of Stephen (cf.
Acts 7:58; 8:1-3; 9:1-7). So if we can determine the date for Paul’s conversion
we can come within a few months to the actual the date when Stephen made his
final speech of warning to the Sanhedrin.
The date of Paul’s conversion is mainly
determined by two chronological statements that he made in his letter to the
Galatians (1:18 and 2:1). He first briefly retells in Gal 1:15-18 about his
life-changing encounter with Christ while he was on his way to Damascus (to
basically, purge the city of Christians, like He had just done in Jerusalem
(Acts 8:3)). He then says that following this conversion experience, he did not
immediately return to Jerusalem to meet with the apostles, but instead went to
the region of Arabia and then to Damascus (vs. 17); (with this time of course,
a radically different agenda (Acts 9:1, 2, 27)). Then in Gal 1:18, Paul states
that ‘after three years’ he went back to Jerusalem which was his very first visit
to Jerusalem since his conversion. Now Luke, in the book of Acts clearly
indicates that this visit occurred shortly after Paul had escaped from Damascus
(Acts 9:23-28), and because of a statement that Paul made about this incident
in 2 Cor 11:32, 33, which has some interesting historical and chronological
indications, we are able to closely approximate the probable years when this
escape from Damascus could have taken place, and thus also approximate the
probable years when Paul had made his first visit to Jerusalem.
In 2 Cor 11:32, 33,
Paul states that his escape from Damascus, occurred while a certain King named
Arestas had control over Damascus. This “King Arestas” has been historically
confirmed to have been the Nabataean King Arestas IV Philopatris.N199 It was this illicit union that John the
Baptist had [privately?] rebuke King Herod (Cf. Matt 14:4 & Mark 6:18) for
and had nearly convinced him to repent, but all this, as Christians know, ended up costing John the Baptist his life because of the infamous hellish birthday wish of Herodias’s daughter. Interestingly enough, Josephus also mentions this [consequential] death of John
the Baptist and also Herod’s fear of Him [See Antiquities, 18:5.2
[#116-#119]. He is said to have died in either 39 A.D. or 40 A.D., but since his reign began in 9 B.C and since the last
minted coin in his reign was dated as the 48th year of his reign,B200
then the date of 39 A.D. for his death is the one that
is the most probable.R201 So then based on this
information, the latest that Paul could have been in Damascus would have been
39 A.D.R202
Now the year that
Arestas IV and the Nabataeans could have first exercised political control
over this city has been said by commentators to be the year of 37 A.D.,R203 at the time of the change of Roman Emperors from Tiberius Caesar to
Gaius (a.k.a Caligula), because of the
following reasons:
The ruling policy of
Emperor Tiberius strongly opposed client kingdoms on the eastern frontier of
the Roman Empire,R204 but this policy was radically
changed after his death in the spring 37 A.D., when the new
Emperor Gaius began to immediately allocate the political control of different
parts of the eastern frontier to some of his political "friends." In
37 A.D., Gaius gave the district of Commagene and the coast
district of Cilicia to be an independent kingdom to a certain AntiochusB205
and then in the next year (38 A.D.), a flurry of political
allocations occurred,R206 upon the approval of the Senate, as
Gaius gave: (1) the area of the Arabian Ituræans to a certain Soaimus;R207
(2) Lesser Armenia and later parts of Arabia to a certain Cotys;R208
(3) the former territory of Cotys to RhœmetalcesR209 and (4) and his
ancestral domain to a certain Polemon.R210 All this probably
stemmed from Gaius’s overall desire to be “popular” as Roman historian
Suetonius said.B211
Also, back in about
late 36 A.D./early 37 A.D., Emperor Tiberius
had dispatched the governor of Syria, Vitellius, on a punitive mission against
King Arestas, but while on his way to accomplish this mission, Vitellius and
his legions did not go through the city of Damascus which would have been the
strategic thing to do if this city had then been under the control of Arestas.R212
Instead, Vitellius and his legions
marched to the city of Ptolemais and then moved on toward the city of Petra.R213
[See Map#3].
While on his way to
Petra, Vitellius made a stop in Jerusalem on a sort of a peace-mission with the
Jews, and while he was there a letter came to him announcing the death of the
Tiberius Caesar. Knowing that his expedition mission was thus aborted because
of the death of the Emperor who ordered it, Vitellius waited for a renewing
order to come from the new Emperor Gaius, but it never came. On the contrary
Gaius adopted a friendly attitude toward King Arestas and the Nabataeans, which
was probably largely due to the long-ago friendship that Arestas had had with
Gaius’s father Germanicus.N214 Based on all of
this, it would then seem that it was around the time of Gaius’s flurry of
political allocations that the city of Damascus was given over to Nabataean
control.R215
Therefore we can conclude that the only time period when Arestas and
the Nabataeans could have been in control of Damascus would have been from the
spring of A.D. 37 until his death in A.D. 39.N216
And since, as some commentators have remarked, the negotiations about this
transfer of Damascus probably were not completed before that summer in 37 A.D.,R217 we can further narrow this range
of years to the summer of 37 A.D. to sometime in 39 A.D. Therefore Paul’s expulsion from Damascus must have occurred at some
time within this two-and-a-half year period. If we now subtract from this
period, the three years that Paul said had elapsed between his conversion
experience and his first trip back to Jerusalem after the Damascus expulsion
(Acts 9:23-28; Gal 1:18), then the possible time of Paul’s conversion
would have been in either 34, 35 or 36 A.D.
The selection of one
specific year from these three, can now be determined based on the second
chronological statement, that Paul made in Gal 2:1 as he literally said:
Paul’s use of the
unmistakable sequential expression epeita dia [“Then after”] strongly
suggests here that he was saying that these fourteen years came after the
three-year period of Gal 1:18, so these two time periods are to be considered
as two separate time periods and not as two overlapping or inclusive periods
with the three years being a part of the 14 years, as some have supposed.R219
Also Paul’s use of the
preposition palin “again” here also suggests that he hadn’t made a trip
to Jerusalem prior to this second one. This is emphasized by his overall line
of thought/defense in Gal 1:11-2:21 as he was defending the exclusive origin of
his God-ordained gospel message, and was trying show that when he first came to
the area of Galatia to minister (Acts 13:13-14:25), he hadn’t again been back
to Jerusalem since that visit after 3 years [and (thus?) apparently hadn’t had
contact with the leaders there also]. His second visit only occurred when the
Apostolic conference took place (Compare Acts 15:1-30 with Gal 2:1-10), which
was after the time of his first ministry in Galatia.N220
He was doing this to emphasize to the Galatians that he had not received his
message from the leaders of the Jerusalem Church, but actually only through the
direct revelation of Jesus Christ (Gal 1:11). So although the Jerusalem Church
had now come to the same conclusion as him concerning the function of the
ceremonial law (see Acts 15:23-29), Paul was showing here that he had
understood this a long time ago, without any consent from anyone, including the
Jewish Christians.
So now since, as we
have already seen that the visit to Jerusalem after three years that Paul mentioned
in Gal 1:18 theoretically could have fallen in either 37, 38, 39 A.D., and since his second trip to Jerusalem, for the Apostolic Conference,
did not occur until 14 years after this 3-year period, then his second visit to
Jerusalem would have theoretically fallen in the years 51, 52, or 53 A.D. So in order to determine which date is correct here we have to
determine the date for the Jerusalem Council. This can actually be done by
working backwards from a concretely dated period in Paul’s ministry, namely his
one and a half year stay in Corinth (Acts 18:1-11), which is largely determined
by the date of his appearance before the Roman proconsul Gallio (Acts
18:12-17).
Acts chapter18 begins
by retelling of Paul’s ministry in Corinth and Luke says in verse 11 that Paul
had stayed there for one year and six months. Then in the next verse Luke tells
of a time during this stay in Corinth when Paul was brought before the
proconsul Gallio by the Jews of Corinth. For a long time it was impossible for
NT scholars to concretely date this event, but in recent years (around the early 1900's) the
fragments of an inscription that was found in the ruins a city called Delphi
which was a city located across the Gulf of Corinth [See Map#3] came to provide a means of
dating this episode. This inscription was originally a response letter from
Emperor Claudius (41-54 A.D.) to the citizens of Delphi
and the part of it that is of consequence to this discussion read in (the
transliterated) Greek as:N221
line 1- Tiberios Klaudios Kaisar Sebastos
Germanikos, dēmarchikēs exou-
line 2- sias to IB, autokratōr to
KZ, patēr patridos ... chairein.
line 3- Palai men tēi polei tē tōn
Delphōn ēn ou monon eunous all’ epimelēs ty
line 4- chēs aei d’ etērēsa tēn thrēskeian
tou Apollōnos tou Pythiou. epei de
line 5- nyn legetai kai
poleitōn erēmos einai, hōs moi arti apēngeile L. Iou
line 6- nios Galliōn philos mou kai
anthypatos, boulomenos tous Delphous
line 7- eti hexein ton proteron kosmon entelē
etellomai hymein kai ex al
line 8- lōn poleōn kalein eu gegontas eis
Delphous hōs neous katikous kai
line 9- autois
epitrepein ekgonois te ta presbeia panta echein ta tōn Del-
line10-phōn hōs
poleitais ep’ isē kai homoia. ei men gar tines ...
hōs polei
line 11-tai
metōkisanto eis toutous tous topous, kr...
and is translated into
English as:
line 1- Tiberius Claudius Caesar Augustus
Germanicus, invested with tribunician power
line 2-
for the 12th time, acclaimed imperator for the 26th
time, Father of the Fatherland ... send greeting to...N222
line 3- For a long time I have been not only
well disposed toward the city of Delphi, but also solicitous for
its
line 4- prosperity, and I have always supported the
cult of Pythian Apollo. But
line 5- now since it is said to be destitute
of citizens, as L. Jun-
line 6- ius Gallio, my friend and proconsul,
recently reported to me, and being desirous that Delphi
line 7- should
continue to retain intact its former rank, I order you
[plural] to invite well-born people also from
line 8- other cities
to Delphi as new inhabitants and to
line 9- allow them
and their children to have all the privileges of Delphi
line 10-as being
citizens on equal and like (basis). For if some ...
line 11-were to
transfer as citizens to those regions . . .
It has been unanimously
accepted by NT scholars that the mention of Gallio in line 6 as a being “proconsul”
implies that Gallio was functioning in that office at the time that this letter
was written and that this proconsulship was in the province in question here:
Achaia. Gallio’s brother, L. Annaeus Seneca, who was a well-known philosopher,
does confirm in his writingsR223 that Gallio had indeed
been proconsul of in Achaia at some time, as we will see later. Although Seneca
does not specify exactly when this proconsulship took place, we are still able
to arrive at the probable date based on the date that can be arrived at for this
letter of Claudius.
Claudius mentions in
this letter that, at that time, he was acclaimed as imperator
(victorious commander) for the 26th time.N224
Based on other documents which make mention of some of Claudius’s previous
military acclamations,R225 it is seen that Claudius’s 22nd
-25th acclamations occurred in his 11th regnal year (Jan
25, 51 A.D. - Jan 25, 52 A.D.),B226
and an inscription of Kys in Caria indicated that Claudius’s 26th
acclamation occurred in his 12th regnal year (Jan 25, 52 A.D. -Jan 25, 53 A.D.).N227 So the terminus
quo for his 26th acclamation would be Jan 25, 52 A.D. Now since another inscription further indicated that by August 1, 52 A.D. Claudius had been acclaimed imperator for the 27th time,R228
then this establishes the terminus ad quem for his 26th
acclamation to Aug. 1, 52 A.D. and thus means that his letter to the citizens
of Delphi had been written sometime between January 25 and August 1 of
52 A.D. This range can be further narrowed down since the
Battle season did not usually run through the adverse winter monthsS|N229
and so wars were usually not fought and/or decided at that time.R230
This then meant that Claudius would not have received his 26th
acclamation before the spring of 52 A.D.R231 So the most
probable time when Claudius probably wrote this letter would be from about
March/April 52 A.D. to August 1, 52 A.D.
Now, according to a
previous ruling of Emperor Tiberius,
Gallio’s term in office would have begun on July 1,N232 and would have
lasted for the norm of one year,N233 i.e., until June 30 of
the next year. Since Claudius’s letter implies that Gallio was in office at the
time it was written, then the question that now needs to be answered would be:
Was Gallio just starting his one-year term (a 52-53 term) in office when
this letter was written, or was he finishing one up (a 51-52 term)? Based the
fact that a report by Gallio's brother Seneca showed that Gallio did not
complete his full appointed year in office, a "beginning-a-term"
theory is the one that seems most likely to have been the case here. Seneca had
said that:
“When, in Achaia, he [Gallio] began to feel
feverish, he immediately took ship, claiming that it was not a malady of the
body but of the place.”B234
Murphy-O’Connor
comment on this passage by saying:
“the natural interpretation of Seneca’s sardonic
reference to ‘a malady of the place’ is that Gallio was antipathetic to Achaia
and used the excuse of a minor illness to leave. This type of instinctive
aversion normally results from a first impression. It does not usually begin
late, although it may intensify with the passage of time.”N235
Since Seneca had
pointed out that Gallio “immediately took ship,” he would therefore also have
left Achaia at a time when the sailing season was open since it was closed down
from November 11 to March 10,R236 because it would be very
unlikely that he would have ordered a military ship to come and get him during
the dangerous winter season and then risk sailing back to Rome at that time.N237
It then seems here that Gallio had not been in Achaia for the remaining part,
(the summer) or the most part (winter, spring, summer) of his one-year term.
Therefore we can conclude that Claudius’s letter was not written in the last
part of a full term of Gallio, i.e., the Spring or early Summer, but rather in
the early part of this term. Now since Claudius letter seems to be a response
letter of a report that Gallio had sent to him about a depopulated Delphi, then
the most logical conclusion that could be made here is that immediately upon
his arrival in Achaia, Gallio had sent a report of this depopulation problem to
Rome and the Emperor, almost as a part of a "check-in report"
procedure, and that Claudius had immediately responded to this matter since his
letter would have had to have been written (and not actually received)
before Claudius was saluted with his 27th imperial acclamation,
i.e., before August 1, 52 A.D. This quick response on Claudius’s part is not
at all unlikely based on the apparent personal interest and concern that he had
for the city of Delphi as he stated in this letter (See lines 3 & 4). Also
the way he referred to Gallio as “my friend and proconsul Gallio” seems to be
sort of a way for him to affirm the, would-be, newly-arrived Gallio to the
people of Delphi. So based on all of this, the most probable date for Gallio’s
one-year proconsulship in Achaia would have been from July 1, 52 A.D. to June 30, 53 A.D.
With this date
established we can now answer the question of: When, within this
less-than-one-year period, was Paul brought before Gallio? The almost unanimous
supposition among commentators has been that the Jews in Corinth tried to take
advantage of a "new and untried" Gallio when they brought Paul before
him. This would suggest a date very early into Gallio’s term, i.e., the summer
of 52 A.D., and this conclusion
can be supported by two corroborating dates, namely the dates of the start and
end of Paul’s 1½ year stay in Corinth (Acts 18:11) which we will examine below,
along with the “many days” that Luke said that Paul went on to still spend in
the city of Corinth after this trial (18:18).
First of all, it is
safe to say that Paul left Corinth after the sailing season was openedN238
(between March 10 and November 11) since he obviously did sail
away from there to Ephesus (see Acts 18:18, 19). Now since the reason he gave
for not staying long in Ephesus (and being in a hurry) was because he felt that
he “must [dei], by all means keep [the] coming feast in Jerusalem,”N239
it can then be seen that he theoretically left Corinth either a little before
the Spring Pilgrimage Feasts of Jerusalem or a little before its Fall
Pilgrimage Feasts. Since it seems that he had planned to attend this feast in
advance, based on his calculated “I must” reason, but yet he was still in a
hurry, then it therefore seems that he was on his way to attend the Spring
feasts since, if this were the Fall feasts, he would more than likely have cut
his days shorter in Corinth and left in sufficient time to make it to these
feast without having to rush as he did. With the fact that the sailing season
reopened on March 10, it can then be seen why he would be in a hurry here to
keep sailing on and not stay too long at his in-between stops since he had a
840-mile trip ahead of him which would take him about month to accomplish.N240
So all of this strongly suggests that in Acts 18:21, Paul left Corinth in about
early March of 53 A.D., in order to attend the Spring
Feast in Jerusalem. This would then automatically mean that his 1½-year stay in
Corinth had begun back in about September or October of 51 A.D. This arrival date is supported
by the fact that Paul had sailed from Berea to Athens (see Acts
17:14, 15) just prior to arriving in Corinth (18:1), which obviously meant that
the sailing season was still open at that time and thus confirms that
conclusion he had arrived in Corinth in September or October of 51 A.D., since this would be before the
sailing season closed for the winter.
So, according to this
reconstruction, Paul would have been brought before the newly arrived Gallio in
about in July/August of 52 A.D., which would be about 10
months after his arrival in Corinth. He then would have stayed there for
another 8 months after that which would satisfactorily verify the “many days”statement
in Act 18:18.
The conclusion that
Paul began his extended ministry in Corinth in about September of 51 A.D. also harmonizes with another event that Luke alluded to in connection
with this Corinthian ministry. In Acts 18:2. he stated that upon his arrival in
Corinth, Paul met “a certain Jew named Aquila ... who had recently come from
Italy with his wife Priscilla (because Claudius had commanded all the Jews to
depart from Rome)...”
This expulsion of Claudius is validated historically as it is mentioned
in the writings of Roman historian SuetoniusB241 as he says that:
“He [Claudius] expelled Jews from RomeN242 who were constantly
making disturbances at the
instigation of Chrestus” (i.e., “Christ”N243).
Based on the testimony
of a fifth century
Christian writer by the name of Paulus
Orosius, this expulsion has been
dated to the ‘ninth year of Emperor Claudius’ (Jan 25, 49 A.D. to Jan 24, 50 A.D.).N244 So then when
Paul met Aquila and Priscilla, they would have had only been in Corinth for
about two years.
So now based on all the
above discussion, Paul’s ministry in Corinth and the other events surrounding
it, can be charted on a
chronological time-line in the following way:
Now, since Paul
embarked on his second missionary journey soon after the memorable Apostolic
Conference (see Acts 15:30-36) and ended it when he arrived in Corinth, we can,
by using the arrival date of Paul in Corinth of Sept/Oct of 51 A.D., and by determining the most probable duration of Paul’s second
missionary journey which is recorded in detail in Acts 15:36-18:1, come to
firmly establish the actual date of Paul’s visit to Jerusalem for the Apostolic
Conference and thus his “second visit” to Jerusalem mentioned in Gal 2:1.
The probable duration
of Paul’s second missionary journey can be determined because of the following
three observations:
1) Since at the very
beginning of this missionary trip, Barnabas is indicated to have “sailed” to
Cyprus shortly after he had parted company with Paul (because their
disagreement over John Mark; see Acts 15:36-39), then the second missionary
trip therefore began at a time when the sailing season was opened or was about
to be opened. I.e., sometime between (ca.) March 10 and November 11.
2) Since Luke does not
indicate any “long time”stays during this mission as he did in his account of
the first journey (see Acts 14:3, 28), and he does not say anywhere that during
these travels Paul “wintered” anywhere, as he, and also Paul, specifically
indicate in other places (see Acts 27:12; 1 Cor 16:6; Titus 3:12; cf. also Acts
28:11).
3) Since the purpose of
this trip was to visit churches that were already established,
and not to start new ones (Acts 15:36), and since Paul, in four letters 1 &
2 Thessalonians and 1 & 2 Corinthians, and also particularly in reference
to his stays during this second missionary journey (1 Thess 2:2~Acts 16:22-24),
points out that he did all he could in order not to be a burden to those whom he
visited (see 1 Thess 2:9; 2 Thess 3:8-15; 1 Cor 9:12b-15a; 2 Cor 11:9) then,
unless otherwise indicated in the account of Luke (e.g., Acts 16:12b, 17:2),
the very minimum number of days of (i.e., less than a weekR245)
should be chosen for the length of Paul’s stays in these cities. Apparently it
was because Paul had found a opportunity for work in Corinth (Acts 18:3) and
therefore support himself that he remained there so long (1 year and 6 months-
Acts 18:11).
All of this therefore
strongly suggests that (1) the first part of this second missionary journey up
to Paul’s arrival in Corinth, did not take more than a year, and (2) that it
did not extend into a winter season. This would then theoretically mean that
all of the travels of this journey, from Antioch (in Syria) (Acts 15:35, 36) to
Corinth (18:1), would have been done within the eight months of the
"open sailing season," i.e., between March 10 and November 11.
Therefore a timed outline of Paul’s itinerary from Antioch to Corinth for this
second missionary trip would be as follows [See Map#4 for sketch]:
Ministry in Antioch (Acts 15:30-40)
#1. Acts 15:30a
Jerusalem to Antioch
330 mi 17 days
#2. Acts 15:30b-35 Antioch
Church ------ 14 days
-Start of the Second Missionary Trip-
Ministry in Syria & Cilicia (Acts
15:41a)
#3. Acts 15:41a
Travels in Syria & Cilicia
150 mi? 8 days
#4.
Stays
----- 10 days
Ministry in Lycaonia (Acts 15:41b-16:5)
#5. Acts 16:1a
Tarsus to Derbe
114 mi 6 days
#6. Stay ------ 3 days
#7. Acts 16:1a
Derbe to Lystra
36 mi 2 days
#8.
Stay ------ 3 days
Ministry in Mysia (Acts 16:6-8)
#9. Acts 16:8
Lystra to Troas
383 mi 20 days
#10.
Stays ----- 3 days
Ministry in Macedonia (Acts 16:9-17:13)
#11. Acts 16:11
Troas to Samothrace to Neapolis
134 mi (sea) 5 days
#12. Acts 16:12a
Neapolis to Philippi
21 mi 1 day
#13. Acts
16:12b-13a Stay ------ 10 days
#14. Acts 17:1a
Philippi to Amphipolis
20 mi 1 day
#15. Acts 17:1a
Amphipolis to Apollonia
21 mi 1 day
#16. Acts 17:1b
Apollonia to Thessalonica
31 mi 2 days
#17. Acts 17:2 Stay ----- 21 days
Ministry in Achaia (Acts 17:14-18:1)
#18. Acts 17:10a
Thessalonica to Berea
26 mi 1 day
#19. Acts 17:10b-11
Stay
----- 14 days
#20. Acts 17:14, 15a Berea to Athens 279 mi (sea)10 days
#21. Acts 17:15b-17
Stay
----- 7 days
#22. Acts 18:1
Athens to Corinth
32 mi 2 days
___________________________________________
Sub-Totals Land Travel 834 mi 44 days
Sea Travel 414 mi 15 days
Total Travels 1248 mi 59 days
Duration of Stays ------ 71 days
Total Length of 2nd
Trip 130 days
Now if the estimated period of
31days that Paul spent ministering in Antioch right after arriving from the
Jerusalem Conference (Entries #1 & #2) is added to this total estimated
period of 130 days of these journeys (4 months, 10 days), then it can be seen
that a total period of about 160 days (5 months, 10 days) had elapsed between
the Apostolic Conference and Paul’s Arrival in Corinth. It can now also be seen
how this period could indeed have taken place between the theoretical 8-month
period of the open sailing season.
So based on all of
this, what can be concluded here is that Paul began his 2nd
missionary trip some time around March 10 and ended it about 5 months and 10
days later, in August/September [of 51 A.D.] as he arrived in
Corinth to stay for a year and a half. All of this therefore means that the
Apostolic Conference would have taken place sometime during the winter of 50-51
A.D., as the following
updated time-line demonstrates:
Timeline of Paul's Ministry in Corinth- B |
So now if we count
backwards from this point the “14 years” mentioned in Gal 2:1 and then the “3
years” mentioned in Gal 1:18, leaving open the very likely possibility that
Paul had counted part of a year, either at the beginning or end of either one
of these periods, as a full year (this was a common method among Jews known as
"inclusive reckoning"), then it can be seen that Paul’s escape from
Damascus would have taken place in the year 37 A.D., which was the
first year Arestas’s possible control of that city. It can also then be seen
that Paul’s conversion would then have taken place in the winter of 34-35 A.D., which would be exactly 17 (inclusive) years before his second visit to
Jerusalem for the Apostolic Conference in the winter of 50-51 A.D., as the following table demonstrates:
# Year A.D. # Year A.D.
1- Winter 34-35 A.D. 9- Winter 42-43 A.D.
2- Winter 35-36 A.D. 10- Winter 43-44 A.D.
3- Winter 36-37 A.D. 11- Winter 44-45 A.D.
4- Winter 37-38 A.D. 12- Winter 45-46 A.D.
5- Winter 38-39 A.D. 13- Winter 46-47 A.D.
6- Winter
39-40 A.D. 14- Winter 47-48 A.D.
7- Winter 40-41 A.D. 15- Winter 48-49 A.D.
8- Winter 41-42 A.D. 16- Winter 49-50 A.D.
17- Winter 50-51 A.D.
So based on these
chronological conclusions an overall outline of Paul’s early ministry would
then look like this:
Conversion..........................................Winter
of 34/35 A.D.
Three
Year Time-Span........................................34-37
Escape
from Arestas.......................Spring/Summer 37
First
Visit to Jerusalem ..................Spring/Summer 37
Fourteen
Year Time-Span...........Spring/Summer37-51
Apostolic
Conference...........................Winter of 50/51
Paul’s
2nd Missionary Trip...............March-Aug/Sep 51
Paul’s
Arrival in Corinth.............................Aug/Sep 51
Appearance before Gallio
......................July/August 52
Now concerning the
relationship of this date for Paul’s
conversion and the date of the theologically-correct termination event for the
Seventy Week prophecy: the Martyrdom of Stephen, this date for Paul’s
conversion of sometime in the winter of 34/35 A.D. would mean that since it had occurred shortly after
the stoning of Stephen, then Stephen’s death would have occurred in apparently
the Fall of 34 A.D. Due to the lack of Biblical
data that would help us to determine the exact month when Stephen was put to
death, but also due to the fact that this event does now also provide a fitting
chronological end for the Seventy Week prophecy, then there is not a
good enough reason, to not now give it the benefit of the doubt and approximate
its probable date in the Fall of 34 A.D. to more
specifically the month of September/October, which would be the seventh Jewish
month. This would then mean that it would have occurred exactly 3½ years after
the crucifixion of Christ in the Spring of 31 A.D., and all of this
would most accurately fulfill the remaining last half of the 70th
prophetic week in Dan 9:27. So then the entire time period of the Seventy Weeks
would have been fulfilled in a chronologically accurate way from the Fall [the
seventh Jewish month] in 457 B.C to the Fall [the seventh
Jewish month] in 34 A.D.!
With the interpretation
and chronology of Dan 9:27 now being complete, we can now go back and compare
its interpretation with Dan 9:26 to concretely establish the kind of
relationship that exists between these two verses.
The Relationship
Between Verse 26 and Verse 27
The last two verses of the Seventy Weeks dealt
with the themes of:
(A) The
(Significant) Death of the Messiah
(B) The Result
of the Rejecting he Messiah
(C) The Consummation
of this Result
in the following
related ways:
(A) According to
the translations that have been presented and supported here, Dan 9:26 began by
stating that:
“And
after the sixty-two weeks Messiah will allow himself to be cut off, but will
have no sin to Him.”
Dan 9:27 then added
some chronological specivity to this statement by saying that this significant
"cutting off" or death of the Messiah would occur in the middle of
the seventieth week and that it would be the integral part of the establishment
of a Second Covenant that would make the Old one that was based on offerings
and animal sacrifices void. Interestingly enough, the verbal expression krat “cut off”
(conjugated as yikkrēt in Dan 9:26) is
also one that is often used for “cutting a covenant.”N249
(B) -Dan 9:26
had said that ‘the people of this coming King’ (i.e., the unbelieving Jews),
would cause the future utter destruction of the city and the sanctuary
and in a similar way Dan 9:27 spoke of this same causation event by
indicating that because the people would have committed the ‘most extreme of
abominations’ by rejecting this ‘coming King’ they would make the Temple be
desolated of God’s presence and this would eventually result in a destruction.
(C) -Dan 9:26
had said that the determined "desolations" would be in the form of a
future war (“a flood”) and Dan 9:27 continued this understanding by stating at
the time of this war ‘that which had been determined (the predicted utter
destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple)’ would then be “poured out” on the
place that was (already) desolate.
These parallel themes
and thoughts between verse 26 and 27 therefore indicate that Dan 9:27 was
simply restating what had already been said in Dan 9:26, but this time with
more contextual and chronological precision. Verse 27 was therefore in an epexegetical
relationship with verse 26,R250 and this would then mean
that the waw---conjunction that occurs at the beginning of Dan 9:27
would be translated as the epexegetical waw-“That is.”R251
So following the
compact theological exposition on the Messiah’s death and its result in Dan
9:26; Dan 9:27 would then picked up the theme and chronology of the Seventy
Weeks where verse 26 had left of, and would have begun to elaborate on it by
saying:
“That is, He
shall cause a covenant to prevail with many for one week,...etc.”
This established
Biblical conclusion now means that the popular, modern-day eschatological
teaching of the end-time Tribulation would last for specifically 7 years
should be abandoned and discontinued from any end-time discussions,
since it was based on an incorrect interpretation and application of the “Seventieth
Week” of Dan 9:27.R252, N253
God’s New, but Enduring,
Israel
Since the period of 490
years that had been determined on the Jewish nation and on Jerusalem came to a
radical end in the Fall of 34 A.D., then the question that now
needs to be answered is: Where did the radical end of this probationary period
leave God’s Israel?
Well for one thing, as
we have already pointed out, the book of Acts clearly indicated that from the
time of the martyrdom of Stephen, the gospel message was no longer confined to
the city of Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). From then on, through especially the
revolutionary ministry of Paul to the Gentiles, the Christian Church would not
only be comprised of only believing Jews,R254 but also of believing
Gentiles.R255 Also, from then on, God’s purposes for
the salvation of the human race would not only be revealed and carried out
through "Israelites" (covenant keepers) who were of Jewish ethnicity,
but also through any other non-Jewish "Israelites" who actually
believed in Jesus Christ and who accepted His Second Covenant. As Jesus had
said in the parable of the Wicked tenant-farmers: The kingdom of God had be
taken away from the Jewish Nation and had given to a new nation that would bear
the fruits of it. (Matt 21:43). So from then on salvation would no longer be “of
the Jews” (John 4:22-25), but of this integrated New Israel.
In the ministry of the apostles, following the time of the cross, they repeatedly tried to help the
newly formed Christian church realize that they were now God’s New Israel and His chosen people. For example James, the brother of Jesus, identified the New Testament church as “the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad” (James 1:1; cf. Matt 19:28). Peter also did the
same in his first Epistle, when, after retelling of how the Jewish Nation had “stumbled” on Jesus the true cornerstone (1 Pet 2:7, 8), he went on to address the present body of believers as: “a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, [God’s] own special people” (vs. 9), since they were now “the people of God.” (vs. 10). These were all terms that had been used earlier by God Himself to describe His former chosen people that were made up of (predominantly) ethnic
Jews. (See Exod 19:6; Isa 43:20-21; Hos 1:6, 9; 2:1). Also from the explanations given by the apostle Paul, it is clear that the term 'Israel' was not limited to only ethnic Jews, and based on passages like Num 15:26, 30a and Isa 56:3-8, it can be seen that this had actually never been God’s intention that it would. Paul pointed this out to the Jews with statements like:
“He is not a Jew who is one outwardly...but he
is a Jew who is one inwardly.” Rom 2:28, 29.
and:
“They are not all Israel who are Israel, nor are they
all children because they are the seed of Abraham;... but the children of the
Promise [Jesus] are counted as the seed” for “If you are Christ’s, then you are
Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the Promise.” Rom 9:6-8; Gal. 3:29. (See
also Eph 2:14-21 & 3:4-7).R256
Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi
comments on the clear olive tree illustration that was given by Paul in Roman
11:17-24 to explain this new Israel concept by saying that:
“... Paul describes the integration of Gentiles into
Israel by using the effective imagery of ingrafting wild olive branches
(Gentiles) into the one olive tree of the Israel of God (Rom 11:17-24). Note
that for Paul the salvation of the Gentiles results not in the shooting forth
of a new olive tree, but rather in the ingrafting of Gentiles into the same
olive tree. The tree of Israel is not uprooted because of unbelief, but rather
is pruned, that is, restructured through the ingrafting of the Gentile
branches. The [Christian] Church lives from the root and trunk of the Old
Testament Israel (Rom 11:17-18). By means of this expressive imagery Paul
describes the unity and continuity that exists in God’s redemptive plan for
Israel and the Church.”B257
Indeed it is through
this deliberate imagery and its unfolding that it is seen that God’s Israel
which stemmed back from its OT establishment and history, though it was now
going through a major Theological furtherance in the New Covenant, was really
the same Israel of God, i.e., the same Tree. It was only the branches that were
going to be changed to allow for the addition of Believing Gentiles or the
removal of Unbelieving Jews, with still each action being undoable as the need
manifests itself.
Similarly in the
imagery in the parable of the wicked tenant-farmers, Jesus had not said that
the owner of the vineyard (God) would find another vineyard (Israel; cf. Isa
5:1-7) to work with, but that He would actually take this same vineyard
(Israel) and give it to another nation. Therefore from the time of Stephen’s
execution, the former tenants of the vineyard (the Nation of Israel) would be
left without a vineyard, meaning that their privilege of being God’s Israel
would be completely taken away from them.
The term "Israel" was therefore meant to apply to anyone who
accepted and followed the stipulations of God's Covenant which, in the Second
Covenant were all based on faith in Christ, namely a Gentile convert or to a
"Messianic" Jew. (See Eph 2:11-18).
The full intention on
the part of God to still include believing Jews from Ancient Israel in this
Second Covenant can further be seen in the “mission statement” of Christ to His
disciples just before His ascension when He said that they would His witness first
in Jerusalem and in all Judea and then in Samaria and then to the
end of the world. (Acts 1:8). Obviously Jesus still felt that the Jews had a
part in God’s immediate plans and that it actually was a primary position in
these plans as the gospel message was to first go exclusively to them. (see Rom
1:16; cf. Matt 10:5, 6).N258
Paul later on would
continue in this same understanding as he, intentionally, first reasoned with
the Jews who were in the towns that he ministered in (see Acts 9:20; 13:5, 14;
14:1; 17:1, 2, 10,16, 17; 18:4, 19; 19:8). As he told the Jews of
Antioch who had come to turn a deaf ear to his message:
“It was necessary that the word of God should be
spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of
everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles.” Acts 13:46 (see also Acts
18:6).
Based on the many
severe trials that he endured in the hands of the Jews (See e.g., 2 Cor 11:24;
cf. Acts 21:4-14) in his attempts to convert them to the Gospel and accept this
Second Covenant, it is evident that he did not believe that God's plan for
ethnic Israel had come to radical end at the cross only to be taken up again at
some later time. If that had been the case, then God surely would have revealed
this to Paul, the "Apostle to the Gentiles" (Acts 9:15; Rom 11:13;
Eph 3:1), when He called him to this office 3 ½ years after Jews had rejected
Jesus Christ. This would have saved His ‘[key] chosen vessel’ (cf. Acts 9:15a),
from these, would-be, unnecessary hardships that the Jews inflicted on him (See
e.g. Acts 21:10-14; 2 Cor 11:24). This radical, dichotomic, ethnic dispensation,
as popularly taught today, was quite obviously not in God's salvifique plans
(cf. Acts 9:15b, 16). Furthermore, when Jesus did not answer head on Peter’s
question in Acts 1:6 (in 31 A.D.) about the final fate of ethnic Israel it
can be seen that it was because there were still 3½ years for them to firmly
determine (Dan 9:27b) for themselves what their ultimate role in God’s
Advancing Israel would end up being. If they failed, which they did in 34 A.D.
with Stephen, then God would have to exclusively work, and that, relatively and
institutionally-speaking, from scratch, through the “Called Out Ones”,
i.e., the Church.
So now since the New
Testament Church is clearly God's New, but Enduring, Israel, then
Christians should therefore look for the fulfilment of some of the promises
that were made to the former keepers of the covenant of the Old Testament times
in the experiences of the New Testament Christian Church. While most of the
promises made to ancient Israel were conditional (Deut 30:15-20; cf. Jer
18:5-10), many of them can still find a spiritual fulfillment today in and
through God's New Testament Israel because most of them were of an inherently
spiritual nature and did not necessarily need to have a strictly literal
fulfillment in order to actually be fulfilled. For example Abraham's seed was
promised to inherit a city, "whose maker and builder is God." (Heb
11:10; cf. Rom 4:13-17a), this city was not necessarily the present Jerusalem,
but is actually the New Jerusalem in Heaven which is the inheritance of all
believers as they all are ‘heirs (of Father Abraham) according to the Promise’
(Gal 3:29; cf. Rom 4:13). That is why, according to Rev. 21:12, 14, the names
of the twelve tribes of Ancient Israel are written on the 12 gates of the New
Jerusalem, (which is certainly a most important place since all must pass
through these gate in order to enter the city) and the names of the twelve
apostles are written on the twelve foundations. The Bible therefore clearly
reveals that God’s plans and future kingdom are inclusive of both Jewish and
Gentiles believers,N259 and this should therefore be the
theological frame of mind of the Christian believer today since such an
understanding goes on to greatly affect the interpretation and understanding of
the unfulfilled promises/prophecies in the Old Testament, which are to now be
interpreted Christologically, (i.e., in the light of the Second Covenant
established by Christ), along with the predictions especially found in the book
of Revelation which were given in about the mid-90's A.D., which was a time
that was 56+ years after Ancient Israel had officially lost its previous status
in God’s plans, and 20+ years after the “desolation” of Jerusalem and the
Temple had been had been consummated.N260
Notes to
"Verse 27"
1. A third
main interpretation of this verse had been that it centered on the ruthless
actions of Antiochus IV Epiphanies during the 2nd century B.C., but this interpretation has been completely made void by the
precise chronology of the first 3 verses of the prophecy that revealed that the
prophecy did not culminate in the 2nd century B.C. but rather extended into New Testament times.
2.. For these
translations for such waw-conjunctions see Waltke and O’Connor, IBHS,
650-652 [39.2.3a-c].
7.. Some
commentators have suggested here the translations: "And one week shall
confirm a covenant" [e.g., E. W. Hengstenberg, Christology of the Old
Testament and a Commentary on the Messianic Predictions. Translated by
Theod. Meyer and James Martin. 4 vols. (Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel Publications,
1956, reprint of the British edition, 1872-78),
142], or: "A covenant will prevail for the multitude for one
seven" [Goldingay, 226]; but neither of these two translations are in
complete harmony with the Hebraic syntax of this phrase as Owusu-Antwi (197)
has demonstrated.
8. Although
the expression "the people" [⊂am] in verse 26 is in
the singular grammatically, it is still plural in sense, as a singular people does not mean
one person, so for that reason it
would not qualify here as an antecedent for the singular pronoun
"He." [Cf. Owusu-Antwi, 198].
15.. Cf. H.
Kosmala, "gābhar," TDOT, 2:368; idem, "The term geber in
the Old Testament and in the Scrolls,"
Congress Volume, Rome, 1968, SVT, 17 (Leiden: E. J. Brill, 1969),
159-169; Meredith G. Kline, "The Covenant of the Seventieth Week," In
The Law and the Prophets: Old
Testament Studies Prepared in Honor of Oswald Thompson Allis, ed. John H.
Skilton (Nutley, NJ: Presbyterian Reformed Publishing Co., 1974), 465.
17.. See Goldingay,
230; Porteous, 143; D. S. Russell, Daniel. The Daily Study Bible. (Edingburgh:
Saint Andrews Press, 1981), 190; Driver, 141; Towner, 144; Bevan, 160;
Montgomery, 385; Lacocque, 187; Slotki, 79; Walvoord, 231, 234;
A. Bekerley Mickelson, Daniel and Revelation: Riddles or Realities? (Nashville,
TN: Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1984), 122; Archer, 177; H. C. Leupold, Exposition
on Daniel. 2d ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1956), 431; Young,
209; Oswald T. Allis, Prophecy and the Church (Philadelphia:
Presbyterian and Reformed Publishing Co., 1945), 121; Baldwin, 171; Mauro, Seventy
Weeks, 86; Robert M. Gurney, God in Control (Worthing: H. E. Walter,
1980), 114; Shea, "Prophecy of Daniel 9:24-27," 95; etc.
18. Some
recent English versions of the Bible have translated berît
here to mean a “league” (NEB, REB) or an “alliance” (NJB), but these
translations are more interpretive in this context than literal. These two
translations of berît here, in these somewhat military
terms, are largely due to the incorrect understanding that the
antecedent of the pronoun "He" in verse 27 is the title nāgîd of vs. 26, and that
this title is referring to a "military prince." This
misunderstanding has already been proven to be without any exegetical and
Biblical support (See “The
Identity of māšîah nāgîighlight3d” Ch. 5, pp.), so these
translations are indeed incorrect here.
19. That is
more specifically the times from the establishment of the “First Covenant” with
Israel at Sinai.
26. He,
interestingly enough, did not say that His blood was “shed in behalf of all”
since the only ones who would actually benefit from His shed blood would be
those who would “believe” in Him, as John 3:16 indicates (cf. Matt 20:28b; Rom
5:15; Heb 9:28).
27. Since the
message of the Epistle to the Hebrews is so Christocentric and Pauline in its
message, it very well may have originally been composed in Hebrew (more
specifically Aramaic), by Paul himself, as many early Church Fathers have
claimed (see below), for His Jewish-Christian brothers and sisters (cf. Heb
2:3, 4). This epistle would then have been translated into its present Greek
form at a later time by someone else (Apollos? based on Acts 18:24-28). This
would then explain the slight difference in the Greek writing style that is
used in it in comparison to the Greek style in Paul’s other epistles. The fact
that this epistle does not have the typical Pauline greeting and ending would
also be because they would have been left out during this translation
(for-wider-circulation?) process.
Furthermore, since, unlike Paul’s other epistles, the epistle to the
Hebrews was actually a sermon and not a letter of correspondence,
this would then explain its more literary and structured form.
Church Fathers Eusebius
and Clement of Alexandria were two of several early Church Fathers to claim the
view of an original Pauline authorship and then a later translation into Greek
by someone else. They suggested that this translation was done by Luke. (See
e.g., Eusebius, Historia Ecclesiastica,* 6:14.2ff).
What also further
suggests a Pauline authorship to the Epistle to the Hebrews is that in the
oldest known copy of Pauline correspondences P46 (Papyri
#46-see Stevens, 286), which only has the non-Pastoral Epistles and is dated to
about 200 A.D., the book of Romans is
immediately followed by the book of Hebrews.
A would-be Biblical
parallel to the “Epistle to the Hebrews,” written originally in Aramaic, for
Hebrews and then later translated into Greek would be the gospel of Matthew
since, according to the testimony of an early church bishop named G. Papias
(ca. 60- ca. 130 A.D.), who had
apparently been a disciple of John the Beloved, Matthew had originally
written his Gospel in Aramaic for Jews. [See Eusebius, Historia
Ecclesiastica, 3:39.16].
Another would-be parallel, although
it is non-Biblical, would be the work “War of the Jews” by Jewish
Historian Flavius Josephus since he indicates in the Preface to this work that
it was originally written in Aramaic for the Jews, but then: “For the sake of
such as live under the government of the Romans,” he fine-tuned his Literary
Greek skills and translated it “into the Greek tongue.” (See Josephus, Preface
to The War of the Jews, 1 [#3]).
36.. For other
examples of this translation for the causative Hiphîl of “to cease” see
e.g., (esp. in KJV): Neh 4:11; Isa 13:11; 30:11; Jer 48:35; Pro 18:18; Ezek
26:13; etc.
37. For a
somewhat indepth exposition on these different offerings see M. L. Andreasen, The
Sanctuary Service, 2nd ed. rev. (Hagerstown, MD: Review and
Herald, 1947), 88-169; SDABD, 963-967.
38. The KJV
has “Meat Offerings” for this kind of offering but this is inaccurate as flesh meats
were never used in these offerings under the Levitical system established at
Sinai.
40. The minhah
could also be used as a substitute for an animal for a Guilt or
Tresspass Offering by an Israelite who couldn’t afford an animal for
sacrifice. (See Lev 5:11ff; cf. Singer, ed., "meal-offering," The
Jewish Encyclopedia, 8:397).
42.. J. Bergmann, "zabhach," TDOT,
4:12; Isaac Landham, "sacrifice," The Universal Jewish
Encyclopedia (New York: UJE, Inc), 9:307; Herbert Wolf, "zebah,"
TWOT, 1:233.
53. It must
be pointed out that the veil actually kept anyone, including Israelites, who
was not authorized and/or ceremoniously worthy to enter the Sanctuary's most
holy place out. The very presence of God was contained within that veil, and
even the High Priest could be struck dead if He entered it with unconfessed and
atone for sins. [Ref]
Hence the bells around his garment to indicate that he was still alive and also
a rope around his waist to pull him out in case he was struck dead. [Ref] As anyone entering
the presence of God still had to come with all sins dealt with, even in the New
Covenant, this all therefore all points more to the fact that the presence of
God had suddenly left this place, as Jesus Himself said it would (Matt 23:38)
and/or OT atoning ceremonies were no longer required. (Case in point, evidently
no one was said to have been struck dead when the veil was rent and they could
freely look into the Most Holy Place.)
54. (Matt 27:51; Mark
15:38; Luke 23:45). The veil was not rent by the earth quaking as the “natural”
man would say for “he does not receive the things of the Spirit of God for they
are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually
discerned.” (1 Cor 2:14). So these gospel writers were indeed Spirit-led when
they “discerned” the spiritual link between Christ’s death and the
top-to-bottom tearing of the veil. Mark and Luke, who were writing to a Roman
audience did mention the tearing of the curtain at the time of Christ’s death,
but they did not mention the earthshaking or the rocks splitting probably to
avoid the quick erroneous conclusion that the more “natural men” they were
writing to could make. They also do not mentioned the “unseen hand” but they do
indicate that it was indeed a supernatural event as Mark mentions the “top to
bottom” tearing, while Luke specifies that it the veil was (equally) torn “ in
(the) middle [Gk.-meson]”.
56. Since
Paul uses the term “law” interchangeably
to refer to both the Mosaic law and the Ten Commandment Law (and also to the “law”
of sinful human nature, see e.g., Rom 7:23), it is therefore always necessary
to carefully examine the context of his “law statements” in order to determine
which law he is referring to. Since in this context Paul is rebuking Peter for
the hypocritical way in which he had been acting (vss. 11-13) because he did
not want to considered as “defiled” by other Jews who would have seen him
eating and fellowshipping with uncircumcised Gentiles; it is therefore apparent
that Paul was here referring to the Ceremonial law. Also, since this practice
of these “Judaizers” in Galatia was a tradition and not actually a stipulation
from the Mosaic Law, as Jesus clearly had shown (see e.g., Matt 9:10-13; Luke
15:1-7; etc.), and as Peter should have fully understood by now based on his
previous shock-experience with the Roman centurion Cornelius (Acts 10:1-11:18)
and on his very own confession (Acts 15:7-11) at the recently concluded
Apostolic Conference in Jerusalem (comp. Acts 15:22ff, 30a, 34, 35 and Gal
2:11); then it therefore appears that Paul used this circumstance to
emphatically make a sweeping theological statement about the inefficacity of
the Ceremonial law in general.
57. This “law” is to
be understood as the Mosaic law and not be confused with the Ten Commandment
Law (Ex 20:1-17) for as Paul says in other salvifique passages: “For all who
have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law and all who have
sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for not the hearers of the
Law are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.” Rom
2:12, 13 [i.e.s]; cf. Rom 2:14, 15; 3:31.
58. See the
theological location of this place in: Luke 8:31; Rom 10:7; Rev 9:1, 2, 11;
11:7; 17:8; 20:1, 3.
62. Within this range,
the following dates have been argued for by commentators but rather
inconclusively and/or without accurate and strong supporting evidences. These
are:
A.D. 28: Paul Winter, On
the Trial of Jesus, Studia Judaica, 2nd ed. Revised by T. A.
Burkill and Geza Vermes (Berlin: De Gruyter, 1974), 1:73, n. 5. A.D. 29:
Alfred Loisy, Les Evangiles Synoptiques (Ceffonds: Loisy, 1907-08),
1:386-389; 2:490. A.D. 30: Philip Mauro.
The Chronology of the Bible (New York: George H. Doran Co.,
1922) 119, 120; Leslie P. Madison, "Problems of Chronology in the Life of
Christ." Th.D. dissertation, Dallas
Theological Seminary, 1963. 149-163; Eugen Rucksthul. Chronology of the Last Days of Jesus.
Transl. by Victor J. Drapela (New York:
Desclee Co., 1965), 6; Joachim Jeremias, The Eucharistic Words of
Jesus, trans. A. Ehrhardt (Oxford: Basil Blackwell, 1966), 11-13; A.T.
Olmstead, Jesus in the light of History (New York: Charles Scribner’s
Sons, 1942), 278-281. A.D. 31: SDABC, 5:252-254. A.D. 32: Andersons24 , 121-128; Ernst Bammel, "Philos tou
Kaisaros," TLZ 77 (1952): 205-210. A.D. 33: George Ogg, The Chronology
of the Public Ministry of Christ (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1940),
244-277; J. K. Fortheringham, "The Evidence of Astronomy and Technical
Chronology for the Date of the Crucifixion." JTS 35. (1934): 142-162; Maier, 3-13;
Hoehner, Chronological Aspects, 97-114.
A.D. 35: Kirsopp Lake, "Date of Herod’s Marriage with
Herodias and the Chronology of the Gospels," Expositor 4 (1912):
462-477. A.D. 36: Nikos Kokkinos, "Crucifixion in A.D. 36: The
Keystone for Dating the Birth of Jesus," Chronos, Kairos, Christos:
Nativity and Chronological Studies presented to Jack Finegan, ed. Jerry
Vardaman and Edwin M. Yamauchi (Winona Lake, IN: Eisenbrauns, 1989), 133-163.
65. The Greek
expression prōtēi which is used in
the phrase “on the foremost of Unleaven Bread” (Matt 26:17, 20; Mark
14:12, 16, 17), is one that designate a rank of first place. So it does not
simply mean: first in order, but actually: first in importance.
67. As Luke
clarified in Luke 22:7, the Feast of Unleavened [Bread] was equivalent to the
[Feast of] Passover. (cf. Exod 12:8, 15, 17, 18).
68. See
Bacchiocchi, The Time of the Crucifixion and the Resurrection (Berrien
Springs, MI: Biblical Perspectives, 1985) 66-89; Hoehner, Chronological
Aspects, 85-88.
69. Julian
Morgenstern, "The Calender of the Book of Jubilees, its Origin and its
Character," VT 5 (1955), 64,
65 note 2; Finegan, Handbook of Biblical Chronology, 452, 453; G. R.
Driver, "Two Problems in the New Testament," JTS 16 (October,
1965), 327.
71. This can
be seen by the fact that: (1) Matthew says in Matt 28:1 that Mary Magdalene and
the other Mary went to the tomb “after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn
towards the first (day) of the week (i.e.s).” He would not have said
that “it began to dawn towards the first day of the week” if that day had
already begun in the evening of Saturday night. (cf. Mark 16:1, 2) (2) By John
stating that the meeting of Jesus with his disciples during the evening of
resurrection day was also “on that day, the first (day) of the week,”
(John 20:19; cf. vs. 1) suggests that he personally subscribed to the sunrise
reckoning.
72.. Roger T.
Beckwith, "Cautionary Notes on the use of Calenders and Astronomy
to Determine the Chronology of the Passion." Chronos, Kairos, Christos:
Nativity and Chronological Studies presented to Jack Finegan, ed. Jerry
Vardaman and Edwin M. Yamauchi (Winona Lake, IN: Eisenbrauns, 1989).
74.. Cf. Colin J.
Humphreys and W.G. Waddington, "Astronomy and the Date of the
Crucifixion." in Chronos, Kairos, Christos: Nativity and Chronological
Studies presented to Jack Finegan, ed. Jerry Vardaman and Edwin M. Yamauchi
(Winona Lake, IN: Eisenbrauns, 1989), 168, 169.
76.. E.g., A. T.
Olmstead, "The Chronology of Jesus’ Life," ATR 24 (1942): 4;
Smith B. Goodenow, Bible Chronology Carefully Unfolded (New York:
Fleming R. Revell Co. 1896), 37;
Herman von Soden,
"Chronology," Encyclopedia Biblica, (1899, ed.),
1:799-843; Madison, 157-161.
78.. E.g., Jeremias,
12, 13; cf. The computerized calculations of H. H. Goldstine that
have been used to support this latter conclusion: Herman H. Goldstine, New and Full Moons, 1001
B.C. to A.D. 1651 (Philadelphia: American Philosophical Society, 1973), 86.
82.. Cf. Beckwith,
"Cautionary Notes on the use of Calenders and Astronomy,"
185-189; Owusu-Antwi, 322.
85. One of
the two times in the year, in about March 21, when the sun crosses the equator,
making the night equal in length to the day. The other time in the year when
this occurs is around September 23.
86.. These reason
for intercalation are from (Tosepta) Sanhedrin 2:2, 12; Baraitas in (Babylonian
Talmud) Sanhedrin 11a-b; Quoted in Beckwith, "Cautionary Notes on the
use of Calenders and Astronomy," 194, 195.
89.. Cf. Beckwith,
"Cautionary Notes on the use of Calenders and Astronomy," 193 note 17;
SDABC 5:252.
94.. The fact that
Jesus was expecting his disciples to answer this (rhetorical) question in the
affirmative is indicated grammatically by the presence of this negative
particle “not” [Gk.-ouch]. (see P.-G. Müller, "ou," EDNT, 2:539).
97. If not on
that very day as they were contemplating what to eat during this “pit stop” in
their trip (cf. John 4:6, 8).
98. Textual
evidence of the reading of John 5:1 is almost equally divided between a reading
of: "a feast of the Jews," or "the feast of the
Jews." (See manuscript list in GNT, 329 {John 5:1}). It is more
than likely that if the original reading had had an article here that it would
that it would have been changed by copyist who thought it was a mistake. So the
original reading was apparently indeed: “a feast of the Jews.”
100. Of course
the Passover in John 5:1 and John 6:4 were not one and the same Passover
celebrations as John habitual transitional statement: “after these things” in
John 6:1 (Gk-. meta tauta) clearly indicate that was an
episode that occurred sometime after the previously related events. (See John’s
familiar use of this expression as such in: John 3:22; 5:1; 6:1; 7:1; 21:1).
101. The
arrival of this date of the Spring of A.D. 29 for the
(Passover) feast of John 5:1 would then mean in chronological retrospect that
following His first Passover visit in Jerusalem in A.D. 28 Jesus would have minister in Judea (John 3:22ff) for a period of
about 9 or 10 months, up until the time when He left for Galilee (John 4:1-4,
45) in what we have seen because of the statement in John 4:35 was in January or February. Since also, both
Matthew and Mark add that at this very time John was taken into prison then it
is seen here that it was also in January or February of A.D. 29 that John the Baptist was imprisoned by Herod. Later evidence (See pp. ) will show that
John remained was imprisoned for about a year and 4 months until Herod
decapitated him around the time of the Passover of A.D. 30.
103. Cf. G. Schneider,
"kathexēs," EDNT, 2:221. See Luke use of this word kathexēs four
more times in Luke and Acts to say:
-“And it came to pass soon afterwards,...” (Luke 8:1, NASB).
-“Yes, and all the prophets, from Samuel and those who follow,
...” (Acts 3:24, NKJV).
-“But Peter began speaking and proceeded to explain to them in
orderly sequence,...” (Acts
11:4, NASB);
-“... he departed and went
over the region of Galatia and Phrygia successively (margin)...” (Acts 18:23, NKJV).
105. Herod
Antipas (4 B.C. - 39 A.D.). Various suggestions have been made by commentators to explain what
Jesus meant here by this term “fox” here. Most commentators say that this term
was an epithet that alluded to Herod’s possible sly, deceiving and cunning character
[See Darell L. Bock, BECNT, Vol 2 (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Books,
1996), 1247]; others claim that it was a reference to Herod as a person of no
significance in the eyes of the Jews [Ibid.], especially since he was a “half-bred”
Jew; but the one suggestion that can be supported contextually, is the one that
says that Jesus was referring to Herod as a "destroyer" [Cf. Ibid.]
because he was now sleekly hunting Him down as a fox hunts down its prey to
destroy it (cf. Luke 9:7-9).
106. The inclusion of
this reflexive pronoun ‘myself’ is due to the fact that the verb "epiteleō,"
which literally means: to “carry out, accomplish, or bring to an end” [See R.
Mahoney, "epiteleō," EDNT, 2:42], is
in a true middle voice here [cf. Zodhiates, TCWS-NT, 250;
Stevens, NT Greek, 121 (Deponents)], and thus represents the
subject acting upon himself or herself. [See Brooks and Winbery, Syntax of
the Greek NT, 111-113].
110.. See also other
examples of the use of this word with this same extended meaning in: e.g., Matt
16:21; 17:10; 24:6; 26:54; Mark 8:31; 9:11; 13:10; Luke 2:49; 9:22; 11:42;
13:14; John 3:7, 30; 4:4, 24; 9:4; 20:9; etc.
111. This
selective list of Jesus’s activities prior to His return to Jerusalem actually
covered more than 13 days.
112. It also
seemed here that after Jesus had indicated in verse 32 that the threats of
Herod would not make Him leave Jerusalem, that He made this additional
statement in verse 33 to point out to the scribes and the Pharisees and also
the other people around Him that it was actually "God’s plan" that He
would now journey outside of Jerusalem for the few upcoming days. He would have
clearly indicated this so that they would not go on to say that He was now
leaving Jerusalem out of fear of Herod. In other words, He was now leaving
Jerusalem only because it was actually in God’s plan that He should, but
He would indeed be back to take on the decreed fate. (cf. Luke 9:51).
123.. Sirach 38:11
in R. H. Charles, The Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha of the Old Testament,
2 vols. (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1913), 450.
125. This is,
interestingly enough, the name of the
book of Numbers in Hebrew: bemidbar= "In the Wilderness" as
this book focuses on the 40+-year sojourn of Israel in the wilderness.
126.See e.g., Exod. 23:29;
Lev 26:34, 35, 43; Num 21:30; 2 Chr 36:21; Psa 69:25; 79:7; Isa 54:3; 61:4
(2x); 62:4; 64:10; Jer 4:27; 6:8; 9:10; 10:22, 25; 12:10, 11 (3x); 25:12;
32:43; 33:10; 34:22; 44:6; 49:2, 20, 33; 50:13, 45; 51:26, 62; Lam 5:18; Ezek.
6:14; 14:15, 16; 15:8; 25:3; 29:9, 10, 12; 30:7, 12, 14; 32:15; 33:28, 29;
35:9, 12 (2x), 14, 15 (2x); 36:3, 34, 35; Hos 2:12; Joel 2:3, 20; 3:19 (2x);
Amos 3:19 (2x); Micah 1:17; 6:13; 7:13; Zeph 1:13; 2:4, 9, 13; Mal 1:3.
127. See e.g.,
Lev 26:22, 33; Isa 49:8, 19; Lam 1:4, 13; 4:5; Ezek 6:4; 12:19; 20:26; Joel 1:17; Amos 7:19; Zeph 3:6; Zech 7:14. Some other functional or life giving agents that people are at
times "desolated of" (i.e., deprived of) are e.g.:
"understanding" (Psa 143:4; Eccl 7:16; Isa 42:14; Dan 4:19; 8:27);
"joy" (Ezek. 4:16, 17; 7:27; 23:33; 32:10); "a husband" (2
Sam 13:20; Isa 54:1); "speech" (Ezra 9:3, 4); and "friends"
(Job 16:7).
128.119. When the
expression šōmēm is used in the non-causative Qal verbal stem and
is applied to a person, it has the meaning of someone being “astonished” at the
tragic fate of someone else, but the actual meaning is in this passages is also
one of deprivation as the person that is “astonished” is usually an enemy of
the one who has suffered loss, but instead of greatly rejoicing upon this fate
of his enemy as he should, this person
actually becomes "shocked"
and "speechless." (See e.g., Lev 26:32; 1 Kgs 9:8; 2 Chr 7:21; Job
17:8; 18:20; 21:5; Psa 40:15 [HB 40:16]; Isa 52:14; 59:16; 63:5; Jer 2:12; 4:9;
18:16; 49:17; 50:13; Ezek 3:15; 26:16; 27:35; 28:19).
130. E.g.,
Matt 3:1; 24:26; Mark 8:4; Luke 9:10; 15:4; John 3:14; Acts 8:26; 1 Cor 10:5;
Heb 11:38; etc.
131. (Matt
12:25=Luke 11:17); (Matt 23:38= Luke 13:35); (Matt 24:15=Mark 13:14); Luke
21:20; Acts 1:20 (Quote of Psa 69:25 LXX ); Gal 4:27 (Quote of Isa 54:1 LXX);
Rev 17:16; 18:17, 19.
136.. Cf. The KJV;
NASB; NEB; NKJV; NIV; REB; RSV who have seen this “instrument” as a person,
thus ‘one who makes desolate.’
138. Cf.
Owusu-Antwi, 328, 329; Bevan, 161 who says that “neither šômēm nor mešômēm
ever mean ‘desolator’.” Also Farris 360, 361.
144. (1) Simple
Locational-(‘upon/on/over’); (2) Contingent Locational- (‘at/beside/by’);(3)
Comprehensive Locational-(‘around/about’); (4) Terminative-(‘on/to/onto’);
(5) Metaphorically-[governs the object of (personal) interest]- (‘upon/to/for/over’);
(6) Excessive-(‘on top of that’); (7) Accompaniment-(‘with/along
with/together with’); (8) Addition-(‘in addition to, to’); (9) Multiplication-(‘over,
above’); (10) Norm [basis]-(‘according to’); (11) Cause
[reason]-(‘because of’); (12) Goal [end]-(‘for’); (13) Oppositional-(‘over
against’); (14) Concessive-(‘although, despite, in spite of’); (15) ng1033 Separative-(‘from’); (16) With verbs
of speaking-(‘about/concerning’); (17) Circumstance-(‘regarding/in
connection with’).
150. Cf.
explanation Note #119
and see e.g., Lev 26:32; 1 Kgs 9:8; 2 Chr 7:21; Job 17:8; Psa 40:15 (HB 40:16);
Isa 52:14; Jer 2:12; 18:16; 49:17; 50:13; Ezek 26:16; 27:35; 28:19.
155. Jesus did
have to sacrificially die (which indicates an execution of some sort) in order
to fully accomplish His redemptive mission, but no one was necessarily “predestined”
to be the ones who would put Him to death. It was just a natural development
based on fallen human nature. As Jesus had told his betrayer-disciple Judas: “The son of Man is to go just as it
has been written concerning Him; but woe to that man by whom the Son of Man is
betrayed! It would have been good for that man if he had not been born.” (Matt
26:24=Mark 14:21=Luke 22:22].
156. The fact
that this statement of Jesus to “Jerusalem” was indeed fulfilled is that
although he made numerous appearances to over 517 of His followers (see Matt
28:8-10, 16ff; Luke 24:13ff; John 20:11ff; 26-30; 1 Cor 15:6, 7), for 40 days
after his resurrection (Acts 1:3-except for his appearance to Paul (1 Cor
15:8)), but he never let the rebellious community of Jerusalem “behold” Him in
His convincing, resurrected form.
157. Luke’s
mention of this lament of Christ over Jerusalem in Luke 13 seems on the surface
to contradict the fact that Matthew says that this statement of Christ was made
during the last week of His ministry, at the conclusion of His last sermon
(Comp. Matt 23:37-39 and Luke 13:34, 35), but it appears that Matthew is the
one who is more accurate here and that Luke may have mentioned this momentous
statement of Jesus here, outside of its original location, in order help
explain to Theophilus what Jesus meant when He literally said: 'It was not acceptable
that a prophet should perish outside of Jerusalem.” (Luke 13:33). Since
Jerusalem had the reputation of killing the prophets that were sent to it, as
Luke 13:34 says, then it would not make sense that He, Jesus, the greatest
Prophet of them all (cf. Deut 18:15) should perish outside of "Jerusalem."
Having said this, it very likely may be that Jesus had made this decisive
judgement statement twice, at two similar occasions.
161. (See also the chronological
explanation for this statement in Ch. 8 Note #21). Also
the fact that God Himself had to depart from the temple in order for it
to be ‘desolate’ harmonize with the syntactical fact that in the Piel stem
“the subject [the temple] is only indirectly involved in the bringing about of
the action” and “it effects the resulting state through a person or instrument
that may be named or only implied.” (Waltke and O’Connor, IBHS, 408
[24.3.2d]. So the prediction in Dan 9:27 had also implied that the Temple would
be made desolate by God’s departure. So like Jesus had indicated to
these same religious leaders very early in His ministry (John 2:18-22),
the Temple structure was absolutely nothing without Him (i.e., without God’s
presence).
170. The fact
the prediction of Jesus concerning the destruction of Jerusalem is so
accurately spelled out in Luke’s gospel could
lead some to question if Jesus had predicted this event so specifically in
advance, or if this was an elaboration of this prediction, after the event, by
Luke. This question is quite easily settled by the actual date of the
composition of the gospel of Luke since all signs do show that Luke’s gospel
was written at least a few years before
the beginning of the War in 66 A.D. This is seen in
the fact that both the books of Luke and Acts were actually letters by Luke to
Theophilus, with the book of Acts being a sequel to the Gospel account (Comp
Luke 1:1-4 and Acts 1:1, 2). So since the last recorded event in the book of
Acts (the 2 year ministry of Paul in Rome, Acts 28:30, 31) occurred between
60-62 A.D., then the Gospel of Luke had to have been
written sometime before this event of 62 A.D.
Jesus may have based this more specific prediction of
destruction on the typical way in which a rebellious Jerusalem was
brought into judgement by God as revealed in the messages of other prophets who
previously had to deliver this same message of national doom to this city (see
Ezek 4:1-3; Isa 29:1-7ff; cf. fulfilment in Jer 39:1, 2 [52:4-6]). (The name “Ariel”
that appears in Isa 29:1, 2 & 7 seems to have been, as many have concluded,
a symbolic/coded theological surname for Jerusalem which meant “Lion of God.”
It is probably used here with the symbolic meaning of “Kingdom of God”
and calls to attention the exalted and powerful position that this
about-to-be-sieged Jerusalem has had
before God.)
171. Cf. Paul’s similar masking in 2 Thess 2:3-7ff speaking
of the then ruling Roman Empire that would be replaced by ecclesiastical
(Papal) rulers = Dan. 7:17ff.
172. See e.g., Matt 12:25, 26; Acts 17:31; cf. Jos 5:13, 2
Sam 20:12; Isa 17:5, also Tobith 5:4 LXX, even “confirmed” (Matt 18:16)) among
many more citable examples.
174. It must be significantly understood that this warning
of Jesus was part of an Apocalyptic Discourse that simultaneously dealt
with (1) the destruction of Jerusalem (2) the signs of Christ coming and (3)
the consummation of the age (i.e., this present Era of sin in the world) (Matt
24:3). So not every detail had to be literally fulfilled, or even fulfilled at
all, at the time of the “first wave,”
which was the destruction of Jerusalem.
176. See the study of:
C. R. Koester, "The Origin and Significance of the Flight to Pella
Tradition." CBQ 51 (1989), 90-106; contra: Gerd Lüdemann
"The Successors of Earliest Jerusalem Christianity: An Analysis of the
Pella Tradition." In Opposition to Paul In Jewish Christianity.
Translated by M. E. Boring (Minneapolis, MN: Fortress Press, 1989), 203, 204.
178. De
Ponderibus et Mensuris liber,* 15. This work of Epiphanius (whose title is translated into
English as: Treatise on Weights and Measurements) is a dictionary of the
Bible that also includes evaluations of various versions of the Bible.
179. Josephus
mentions that at that time “many distinguished Jews abandoned the city as
swimmers desert a sinking ship.” (Wars, 2:20.1 [#556])
182. See the
defense of this tradition in e.g., Koester, "The Origin and Significance
of the Flight to Pella Tradition," 90-106; Sidney Sowers, "The
Circumstances and Recollection of the Pella Flight." TZ 26 (1970),
305-320.
183. See
Eusebius, Historia Ecclesiastica,* 3:5.3; Epiphanius, Panarium,*
29:7.7; 30:2.7; De Ponderibus et Mensuris liber,* 15. The Fligh-to-Pella
tradition is also twice alluded to in a later passage of the early 5th
century known as the Pseudo-Clementine Recognitions 1:37.2 & 1:39.3
(see ANF 8) in a context dealing with the destruction of Jerusalem as a
result of the rejection of Jesus “the true prophet.” In 1:37.2 it says (based
on the Syriac text): “And those who believed in Him [Jesus], in the Wisdom of
God would be led to a secure place of the land [i.e., Pella] that they might
survive and be preserved ... from the war, which came afterwards upon those who
did not believe ...”[For a more detailed analysis on this passage and a
comparison of its Syriac and Latin versions see Koester, "The Origin and
Significance...," 97-103.
186. Matthew, probably writing after Mark and using that
gospel as a source, also may have further encrypted that plain statement of
Christ by using a neuter singular (thus “it” instead of “them”) and then adding
the phrase: (“let the reader understand”). He also may have used the nominative
(neuter singular) case for the same syntactical reasons mentioned above.
191.. Cf. Shea, Daniel and the Judgement,
(unpublished 1980), 265; Hasel,
"Interpretations," 53; Auberlen, 140; Boutflower, 197-98.
192. For an
excellent, word-for-word, dramatic presentation of Stephen’s brief ministry,
his trial and his martyrdom see: “Acts”- The Visual Bible, Vol. 1
[6:8-8:3].
193. Some have
implied that these striking parallels are actually the result of a literary fait
exprès on the part of Luke [e.g., Alan Watson, The Trial of Stephen: The
First Christian Martyr (Athens GA: The University of Georgia Press, 1996),
84-87] but there is no need to go to such extreme conclusions when God is in
control of bringing about events in history. Furthermore when one also takes
into consideration the great accuracy in the chronology of the prophecy so far,
to the very season and the fact that, back in the 7th month of 457 B.C. it was actually the
people in Israel who had requested that Ezra read the Law to them at that time ([Neh] 8:1), it can further be
seen that the Spirit of God was indeed in control of bring about the events of
this prophecy in a timely so that it would indeed be fulfill
accurately.
197. The prophet Daniel
also had this similar experience once when he was being taken into vision. (See
Dan 10:8).
198. This is the first
(lexical) perfect form estota thus speaking merely of ‘physical posture’
vs. “being established” (= istanos).
199.. Cf. e.g., NBD,
"Arestas," 79. King Arestas is also indirectly linked to a
well-known Biblical episode [Mark 6:14-20] as his daughter was once married to
King Herod [Antipas] until Herod left her because he fell in love with, and
married a woman by the name of Herodias who was at the time, the wife of his
brother Philip [cf. Josephus Antiquities 18:5.1 [#109, #110, #112-#114].
202.. Cf. Robert
Jewett, A Chronology of Paul’s Life, (Philadelphia: Fortress
Press, 1979), 30, 121 notes 51-54.
203.. See Jewett,
30-33 (with the corrections of C. Saulnier, "Hérode Antipas et Jean
Baptiste: Quelques remarques sur les confusions chronologiques de Flavius Josèphe,"
RB 91 [1984], 371-375. For convincing arguments that show that
Arestas was in full control of the city of Damascus at the time of Paul's
escape, see J. Taylor, "The Ethnarch of King Arestas at Damascus: A
Note on 2 Cor 11:32, 33," RB 99 [1992], 719-728.
206. These
political allocations of Gaius are also mentioned in: William Smith, ed. Dictionary
of the Bible, vol. 1. (London: Walter and Maberly, 1863), 61; Justin
Taylor, "The Ethnarch of King Arestas at Damascus," RB 99 [1992],
726.
212.. Cf. Jewett,
32; Murphy-O’Connor, "Pauline Missions Before the Jerusalem
Conference," RB 89 (1982), 74.
214.. Cf. Anthony A.
Barrett, Caligua- The Corruption of Power (New Haven and London: Yale University Press,
1990), 183; J. P. V. D. Balston, The
Emperor Gaius (Oxford: Clarendon, 1934), 197. This actual friendship
is seen in historical passages like: Tacitus, Annals, 2:57 where
Arestas is said to have shown honor to Germanicus by presenting him a gold
crown.
215.. Cf. Jewett,
33; Manfred Lidner, ed. "Die Geschichte der Nabater," Petra
und das Königreich der Nabater: Lebensraum,
Geschichte und Kultur eines arabischen Volkes der Antike,* 2d ed.
(Munich: Delp, 1974), 130ff.
216. Some have
claimed that since no Roman coins for Damascus have been found between the
years 34 A.D. to 64 A.D. that this therefore indicated that the city was not under Roman control
during that time and thus as early as A.D. 34, but as Justin
Taylor has said: “one should be cautious about inferring too much from the gap
in the coin record.” (Taylor, "The Ethnarch of King Arestas at
Damascus." RB 99 [1992], 724).
217.. Jewett, 33; C.
H. Turner, "Chronology of the New Testament," HDB 1, 416ff.
Alphons Steinmann, Arestas IV, König der Nabater. Eine historisch-exegetische Studie zu 2
Kor 11,32f.,* (Freiburg: Herder, 1909), 43.
220. In Acts
11:28-30 Luke alludes to a visit of Paul to Jerusalem for a famine relief
mission but this event did not actually take place until after the founding of
the Corinthian church (Acts 18); i.e., after
53 A.D. It appears that
Luke parenthetically mentioned this event here in order to immediately show the
fulfillment of Agabus’s prophecy of famine. (Cf. NASB for the accurate
translation of the key part of this verse in 28b of: “And this [famine] took
place in the reign of Claudius.”).
221. This text
is from Joseph A. Fitzmyer, The Acts of the Apostles. Anchor Bible. Vol.
31. (Garden City, NY Doubleday, 1998), 621, 622; cf. J. H. Oliver, "The
epistle of Claudius which mentions the Proconsul Junius Gallio," Hesperia
40 (1971), 239. The bold print is used for the characters from the original
text that are found in the remains of this inscription [see SIG3 #801
for this original text], while the non-bold characters are fill-in words that
have almost unanimously been accepted as the reconstruction of the original
text. It works out that approximately 1/3 of the text has remained. [See A.
Brassac, "Une inscription de Delphes et la chronologie de Saint
Paul,"* RB 10 (1913), 36-53, for a full discussion of the
reconstructed text].
222. The
reconstruction of these first two formal lines of
greetings are based on other known inscriptions of Claudius. [See M. P.
Charlesworth, Documents Illustrating the Reigns of Claudius & Nero (Cambridge:
Cambridge University Press, 1951), 11-14].
224. An
imperial salutation was given to an Emperor following a victory in a war he was
involved in or closely associated to. (See e.g., Flavius Titus’s Acclamation
in: Josephus, War of the Jews, 6.6.1 [#316], following his conquest of
Jerusalem.
227. See Ibid., 44. Claudius was
said there to have had received his 12th tribunician power and by
this time, the tribunician was given to the Emperor on a yearly basis and thus coincided
with his regnal years [cf. Fitzmyer, Acts, 622].
228. See G.
Cousin and G. Deschamps, "Emplacement et ruines de la ville de KYC en
Carie,"* BCH 11 (1887): 305-311, esp. 306-308; CIL 3.476,
6.1256; cf. Frontinus, De Aquis,* 1.13.
229. See e.g.,
2 Sam 11:1. Through human history, when there was no technological way to deal
with/fight against the weather elements, both warring sides mutually preferred
to not engage in battles during the winter months. Even simple torrential rains
could come to decide battles. Case in point, in the 19th century,
Napoleon losing at Waterloo, and also, in even the mid 20th century,
Hitler losing a key battle in Russia mainly because of the sever winters which
literally froze his military machine in their tracks.
230. Cf. Brassac, 45;
Jerome Murphy-O’Connor, "Paul and Gallio," JBL 112 (1993):
316; idem. St. Paul’s Corinth:Texts and Archaeology, GNS 6
(Wilmington, DE: Michael Glazier, 1983), 142-144. On the necessary
connections between imperial salutations and military victory, see Dio Cassius,
Roman History, 43:44.4-5; 46:38.1; 52:41.3-4; and Pauly-Wissowa,
"Imperator," PW 9.1147-1150; cf. N.G.L. Hammond and H. H. Scullard, The
Oxford Classical Dictionary, 2nd ed. (Oxford: Clarendon, 1970),
542.
232. In response to
those who have claimed that Gallio began his rule in May or June, Murphy-O’Connor,
["Paul and Gallio," 316 note 3] has rightly pointed out that: “The
ruling of Tiberius in 15 CE that provincial
officeholders should leave Rome by June 1 (Dio Cassius, Roman History 57:14.5)
implies that they took up their posts a month later. That time was allowed for
travel is confirmed by the 42 CE legislation of
Claudius, who moved the departure date back to 1 April only because officials
tarried in Rome (Dio Cassius 60:11.3). This was too early for [safe] sea
travel, and the following year he was forced to change the date back to 15
April (Dio Cassius 60:17.3). There is no evidence of any modification of the
date of assumption of office.”
233. At very
rare times proconsuls were appointed for a two-year term but this was rather an
exception than the norm. So as W. M. Ramsay ["Luke’s Authorities in Acts
I-XII," The Expositor (May 1909), 469] rightly pointed out: “The
safe plan in chronological reasoning is to follow the general rule, and refuse
to have recourse to exceptions without clear evidence in their favour.”
235.. Murphy-O’Connor,
"Paul and Gallio," 315 [i.e.s]. See also Pliny (Natural
History 31:33.62) who confirms the report by Seneca of Gallio’s “fussy
hypochondriac disposition,” as Murphy-O’Connor (ibid.) has diagnosed it.
[A hypochondriac is a nervous malady, often arising from indigestion, that
torments a patient with imaginary fears].
237.. Cf. Murphy-O’Connor,
"Paul and Gallio," 315, 316. The dangers of sailing the seas in these
days during these adverse winter conditions is a well-documented fact of
history. [Cf. Pliny, Natural History, 2:47.122; Tacitus, History,
4:81]. A report of Jewish historian Flavius Josephus further
illustrates this as he says that even the great Roman General Flavius Titus did
not dare sail the seas back to Rome in the wintertime after he had completed
his conquests in Judea [See Josephus, Wars, 7:1.3 [#17-#20]; see
also Ibid., 4:11.1 [#632] where Josephus says that a Roman
general named Mucianus was also afraid to sail from Antioch to Italy “because
it was the middle of the winter, and so he led his army on foot through
Cappadocia and Phrygia”]. See also the Biblical episode in Acts 27 where the
danger of sailing during this time of the year is seen in the account of Paul’s
shipwreck on Malta while aboard a Roman ship. [The mention of the 'Fast' in
verse 9 is a reference to the Fall feast of the “Yom Kippur” (Day of Atonement)
[See J. Zmijewski, "nesteia," EDNT, e2:465. It was the only ‘Fast’ that was required by
Law. (See Lev 16:29-34; 23:27-32; Num 29:7]. It also appears that the great
danger in sailing the seas in the winter was only due to severe sea storms but
as L. Casson, [Travel in the Ancient World, 271] points out : “It was
even more a matter of visibility: during the winter a much greater incidence of
cloudiness obscures the sun by day and the sky by night, making navigation
difficult in an age that did not have the mariner’s compass...”and he adds that
mists and fogs could mask various perils and render landmarks on familiar
coastlines unrecognizable to the navigator. [Cf. Vegetius, Epitoma Rei
Militaris, 4:39]. For an in depth discussion of this topic see Brian M.
Rapske, "Acts, Travel and Shipwreck," The Book of Acts in its
Graeco-Roman Setting. Edited by David W. J. Gill and Conrad Gempf (Grand
Rapids, MI: Wm. B. Eerdmans, 1994), 2:22-47.
239. The presence of
this phrase in this verse has been a controversial issue among NT scholars
since it does not appear in some ancient manuscripts of the book of Acts and
therefore it does not appear in all the English versions of the Bible. This
phrase appears in the following manuscripts (coded as): Ψ 181 614 1175 Byz [L
P] l 1178 itar, dem, gig,
ph, w vgmss syrp, h slav Chrysotom D* D2 itd (cf. KJV, NKJV); but it does
not appear in: P74 A B E 33
36 307 453 610 945 1409 1678 1739 1891 2344 itc, e, p, ro vg copsa, bo arm geo. [See Appendix C for the full
names and/or dates of these manuscripts. For a brief history of these
manuscripts see the work of: Barbara Aland and Kurt Aland, The Text of the
New Testament, 2nd ed. Translated by Erroll F. Rhodes (Grand
Rapids, MI: Wm. B. Eerdmans, 1989)].
After a study of this
textual variance in this passage J. M. Ross [“The Extra Words in Acts
18:21" NovT 34.3 (1992),
247-249], has concluded that:“the balance of the probability is in favour of
their having been inserted by Luke himself to explain why Paul was so anxious
to make an early departure from Ephesus” and that they were later taken out of
the text probably by “someone who thought Christians ought not to attend Jewish
festivals, and [he therefore] removed the words so as not to give a Pauline
example of such reprehensible conduct.” (248, 249). Based on the fact that this
phrase does not appear in many modern English version of the Bible (see e.g.,
NAB, NASB; NEB, REB, NIV, JB, NJB, RSV, NRSV) it seems that this conclusion is
still prevalent today, but it would seem more likely that these words were
indeed originally in the text of Acts and that a Christian later removed them,
than vice-versa; i.e., that a Christian added this statement into the NT
manuscripts in later centuries. This is especially true in the light of the
growing attitude of anti-semiticism that
became prevalent in the among some non-Jewish Christians living in Roman
Empire, especially after the Jewish Revolt of 66-70 A.D.
Paul himself did
consider these feasts as a mere shadow of things to come, and thus felt that
they did not need to be kept to the letter anymore, (see Col 2:16, 17) but here
(and apparently also in Acts 20:16), he, for some reason, felt a need to
observe them; probably ‘in order to save some [Jews]’ (see 1 Cor 9:19-22).
While these feast days do not have to be kept
to-the-letter today by Christians, they still have a great spiritual
significance in regards to the overall redemptive typological calender of God.
A study of them could be beneficial and enriching to the overall Christian
experience. For an excellent study on the significance of these feast days in,
first of all, their First Covenant context and then in their possible Second
Covenant context see the work of Dr. Samuele Bacchiocchi, God’s Festivals in
Scripture and History. Part
1-The Spring Festivals, and Part 2-The
Fall Festivals (Berrien Springs, MI: Biblical Perspectives, 1995, 1996).
240. Paul also
seemed to have had a similar time-constraint problem in Acts 20:16 when he
wanted to sail to the 600 miles (22-day trip) from Miletus (just south of
Ephesus- see Map#4) to Jerusalem
in the 25 days* that were left before the Day of Pentecost.
*This period of 25 days is arrived at by
subtracting from the 50 days that were between the first day of the Feast of
Unleaven Bread (Lev 25:15, 16; see Acts 20:6) and the Day of Pentecost (Acts
20:16): (1) the 7 days of the feast of Unleaven Bread (20:6); (2) the 5 days it
took to sail to Troas; (3) the 7 days that were spent there;(4) the 1 day of
the Euthychus incident (vss.7-12);(5) the 1 day trip from Assos to Troas (vss.
13, 14a); (6) the 1 day trip to Mitylene (vs. 14b); (7) the 1 day trip to Chios
(vs.15a); (8) the 1 day trip to Samos (vs. 15b); and (8) the 1 day trip to
Miletus (vs. 15b); which adds up to a total of 25 days. [See Map#4 for the location of these places].
242. This event
described as an expulsion is not to be confused, as some
commentators have done, with the time when, in about 41 A.D., Claudius had ordered the Jews in Rome “not to hold meetings,” but “decided
not drive them out.” (Dio Cassius, Roman History, 60:6.6). Later on,
when disturbances arose in Rome between apparently Jews and Christian, Claudius
probably decided at that time to drive out anyone who he suspected was in
anyway connected with Judaism.
243. J. A.
Fitzmyer (619) points out that it seems here that Suetonius was not familiar
with the Christian religion and therefore confused the Greek name for Christ- Christos-
with the more commonly used name, Chrēstos, which he wrote in Latin
as “Chrestus.” This is also the conclusion that many modern historian have
arrived at. (See e.g. A. Momigliano, Claudius: The Emperor and His
Achievement (New York: Barnes & Noble, 1961), 31-34; V. M. Scramuzza, The
Emperor Claudius (Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1940), 151; A.
Piganiol, Histoire de Rome* (Clio; Paris: Presses Universitaires de
France, 1949), 258).
244. See P. Orosius, Historia
adversus paganos,* 7:6.15-16; CSEL, 5:451. He also
mater-of-factly said that Josephus had also made mention of this expulsion but
this reference has not been found in the [surviving?] writings of Josephus so
no one really knows where Orosius got this information. This does not in
anyway discredit the validity of Orosius’s date which is actually further
validated by the fact that the date for Gallio’s proconsulship was not
discovered until the early 20th century, so Orosius really had not
motive for the date that he said this expulsion of the Jews took place.
245. Support
for this understood brief stay time of about only one week (seven days) could
also find support from the statement in the a significant early Christian
document known as the Didache (The Teaching of the Twelve Apostles)
which is believed to (1) have been written in ca. 80-90 A.D., and (2) to be of either apostolic origin (written by the
apostles themselves) or, more likely, of apostolic basis (based on the
teachings and directives of the apostles), which says in chapter 11 verse 5 in
regards to traveling apostles and prophets that they should stay for more than
one day; two, only if need be and that if they remain for three days then they
are a false prophet.
247. Based on
the accepted average rate of land travel being 15-20 miles per day (See “The Time of Christ’s Baptism,”
Ch. 5, pp. Note #219) and the accepted average rate of sea travel being
about 27 miles per day (which is supported by the fact that in Acts 20:6, Luke
says that it took 5 days to sail from Philiippi to Troas which was a distance
of about 135 miles.
248. Based on this
reconstructed chronology of Paul’s first 17 years of ministry which harmonizes
Luke’s chronological outline in Acts and Paul’s chronological statements in
Gal. 1 and 2, then the popular theory among NT scholars that Luke’s chronology
in Acts was out of sequence, should be abandoned. The only events that would
seem to be out of place in Acts would be the famine relief mission of Paul and
Silas (11:28-30) but as we stated earlier (see Note #205), this was a parenthetical allusion
that Luke made in order to immediately indicate the fulfillment of Agabus’s
prophecy.
249. This is
particularly the case in the Qal verbal stem. See e.g., Gen 15:18, Exod
24:8; 34:27; Deut 4:23; 5:2; 1 Kgs 8:9, 21; 2 Kgs 17:15, 38; 1 Chr 16:16; 2 Chr
5:10; etc. In the other verbal stems (the Niphal, Pual (2 occurrences) and
Hiphîl) krat
is used in the sense of a punishment through e.g., “cutting down, destroying,
or killing.” Cf. Wigram, EHC-OT, 618-620.
253. This
right understanding for the Seventieth Week of Daniel also radically and
forever severs the ‘head of this uncircumcised Philistine’ (the Futuristic
interpretation/application of the 70th Week), who, was marshaling
his armies (Futurism/Dispensationalism, and thus pre-Second Advent “rapturists”)
actually against the living God of (True) Israel and His “army” (i.e., Believers
in His Messiah-Jesus Christ)!
256. Cf.
Daniel J-S Chae, Paul as Apostle to the Gentiles (Great Britain:
Paternoster Press, 1997), 281.
257.. Samuele
Bacchiocchi, Advent Hope For Human Hopelessness (Berrien Springs, MI:
Biblical Perspectives, 1986), 211; cf. Chae, 271.
259.. For an
excellent exposition on the topic of the relationship between Israel and the
Church see the chapters by Dr. Daniel J-S Chae entitled: "The Equality of
Jews and Gentiles in the New Status" (206-214) which covers Romans 5-8 and
"The Equality of Jews and Gentiles in the Plan of God" (215-288)
which covers Romans 9-11.
260.. For an
excellent, extensive study on this subject of the Old Testament prophecies
concerning "Israel," and their present status/fulfillment, see Hans
K. Larondelle, The Israel of God in Prophecy- Principles of Prophetic Interpretations
(Berrien Springs, MI, Andrews University Press, 1983). For a more concise study
see: Steven Wohlberg, Exploding the Israel Deception (Roseville, CA:
Amazing Facts, 1998).
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