The Coming of "māšîah nāgîd"
With the mōşā⊃ [the
"starting point"] of Daniel’s Seventy Weeks having been concretely
established to have fallen precisely in the seventh Jewish month of 457 B.C., we can now move forward in the prophecy and interpret the events that
were predicted to follow in the chronological period of 70 weeks starting with
the periods of ‘7 weeks and 62 weeks.’ This time period is mentioned in the
statement:
“From the start of a 'judicial matter'
for the purpose of restoring and thus then building Jerusalem until māšîah nāgîd there shall be seven
weeks and sixty-two weeks.” Dan 9:25
Before we set out to
find the historical fulfillment of the predictions in this chronological time
period, there is a somewhat controversial issue that has to first be dealt with
here. This is whether or not the time perio1d mentioned now is an uninterrupted
time period of 69 prophetic weeks; or is it interrupted after the period of
seven prophetic weeks with the fulfillment of the coming of māšîah nāgîd occurring at that
time, as some interpretersR1 have suggested.
What has led these
interpreters to make this conclusion is the presence of a Hebrew
accent/punctuation mark called an athnach that was placed after the
expression ‘seven weeks.’ These interpreters have concluded that this athnach
here has a full disjunctive value and therefore functions as a full
period. This would indeed cause a radical separation between the seven
weeks and the sixty-two weeks and the statement here in Dan 9:25 would read as:
“....there shall be seven
weeks. Then after the sixty-two weeks.....”
Such a conclusion here
would go on to lead to the prophetic prediction and interpretation that māšîah
nāgîd would appear 49 years (7 weeks X
7 days) after the starting point of the prophecy and not 483 years (69 [7+62]
weeks X 7 days) after this same starting point. So the
question that needs to be answered here is: What is the value and function of
this athnach marking in Dan 9:25? A brief overview of the use of accents
marks in the Hebrew Bible will help to answer this question.
The athnach punctuation
in Dan 9:25
The general purpose of
accent marks in the Hebrew Bible is best expressed by Israel Yeivin who notes
that:
"Their primary
function . . . is to represent the musical motifs to which the Biblical
text was chanted in the
public reading. This chant enhanced the beauty and solemnity
of the reading, but
because the purpose of the reading was to present the text clearly
and intelligibly to the
hearers, the chant is dependent on the text, and emphasizes the
logical relationships
of the words. Consequently the second function of the accents is
to indicate the
interrelationship of the words in the text. The accents are thus a good
guide to the syntax
[punctuation] of the text; but . . . accentuation marks semantic
units, [units that depend
on the meaning of words] which are not always identical
So what is clearly stated here is that Hebrew accent marks did not at first serve as syntactical punctuation mark, but rather as pausal markings that help regulate the chanting of the text during public reading. Therefore an accent marking that is present in the Hebrew text cannot automatically be considered to be a punctuation mark unless its position in the text also coincides with the position for a natural syntactical mark.
Now when an accent mark
is found in the Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible it can have two distinct
values. One would be a disjunctive value and the other would be a conjunctive
value. The purpose of a fully disjunctive marking is to “mark the length
of pauses from full stops to various shades of shorter pauses.”B3
According to W. Wickes’s study of Hebrew accents,B4 the disjunctives were
used to mark a division into two parts (a "dichotomy") of a verse. The
end of the first part of the verse was marked off by an athnach accent
and the second part was marked off by a silluq accent, but these verses
were still not necessarily divided exactly at their halfway mark. A good
example of this is found in the Hebrew Bible’s division of Genesis 1:7 where
the first half of this 16-word verse is marked by an athnach accent
after the fifteenth word of this verse!
Now the two parts of a
divided verse would then be further divided into “successively smaller
half-units on a syntactic [ . . . ] basis”B5 and this gradual
division eventually led to the two halves of the verse becoming divisions
comprising of very small groups of words; and even at times a single word. This
is where conjunctives accents markings would come into the picture as they
would serve to join together these smaller divisions leading up to the athnach
marking in the first half of the verse, and then up to the silluq marking
in the second half of the verse. As it was mentioned earlier, an athnach marking
would at times have a full disjunctive value if its position in a verse
coincided with the syntactical end of a phrase in a sentence.
So based on this brief
background information, we now have to determine if the athnach in Dan
9:25 has a full disjunctive value and therefore marks the end of a phrase, or
if it has a lesser value and a different purpose.
Dr. Owusu-Antwi has
provided several Biblical examples of the varying uses and functions of the athnach
punctuationB6 which help to demonstrate how and why the athnach
in Dan 9:25 is used. They will be briefly discussed here.
1. The athnach can
be used for emphatic purposes.R7
E.g. Gen 1:1- In the
beginning God created [athnach] the heavens and the
earth.
Here the athnach
is used to emphasize God as the Creator. If it had a full disjunctive value it
would completely destroy the meaning of this sentence because the second phrase
‘the heavens and the earth’ cannot stand on its own. Another example of this
emphatic function of the athnach is found in Gen 22:10 where it says:
And Abraham stretched
forth his hand and took the knife [athnach] to slay his son.
Here also, the athnach
does not have a full disjunctive value.S8
2. The athnach
can be used to indicate a pause similar to a comma
E.g., Gen 35:9- And God appeared to Jacob again when he
returned from Padan Aram, [athnach] and he blessed
him.
This second example
highlights the use of athnach to emphasize the speech itself, the
command, or show where the weight of the meaning is.S9
3. The athnach
can also be used as a pause equivalent to a colon or semicolon.
E.g. Gen
6:15- This is how you are to build the ark: [athnach] the
length of the ark, three hundred cubits,
its width, fifty cubits and its length, thirty cubits.S10
4. The athnach also
is used in a sentence to introduce a parenthetical phrase.
E.g., 1 Kgs 8:42- For they will hear your
great name and your mighty hand and your outstretched
arm-- [athnach] when he comes and prays toward this temple.S11
5. When an athnach
is used in verses containing numbers, it also has the same characteristics of the 4
previously mentioned functions of the athnach.
a. It is used as a
principal divider of a verse as in Gen 1:5.
b. It has a pausal
effect similar to a colon or semicolon.S12 This function is also used when an
explanation follows a list of items.S13 In 1 Chr 7:9, the athnach
divides before the numbers:
Their enrollment by their
genealogies, according to their generations, heads of their fathers' house,
mighty warriors: [athnach] twenty thousand and
two hundred.
Although the athnach
is used as a divider before the numbers, the numerical phrase- “twenty
thousand and two hundred”- must still be connected with the previous phrase -“mighty
warriors.” In this example the athnach seems to have a disjunctive value
and helps to introduce an explanation. This example also shows that the
occurrence of the athnach does not necessarily demand that the clause
after the athnach cannot be connected to the previous clause that comes
before the athnach. Instead it reveals that these clauses
belong together.S14
c. In verses that
involve numbers, the athnach can also be used to indicate a pause similar to a comma. For example, Exod
38:29:
And the bronze from the wave offering was
seventy talents, [athnach] and two thousand and four hundred shekels.
Dr. Owusu-Antwi
comments on the use of athnach in this verse by saying:
“In this case, the measure of units (talents and
shekels) which are divided by the athnach describes the same entity--
"the bronze from the wave offering." While the athnach here
distinguishes between the higher unit (talents) and the lower unit (shekels),
it does not seem to have a full disjunctive value. If the athnach were
to be taken as a full disjunctive, the first
part of seventy talents would have to be referred to the bronze while
the "two thousand and four hundred shekels" would then have to stand
by itself or be connected with the following clause (vs. 30). Neither is
possible. The phrase "and two thousand and four hundred shekels"
cannot stand by itself as a sentence and it cannot be connected with the next
clause since they are separated by a silluq. Thus, the athnach in vs. 29 cannot be taken as a full
disjunctive. It is to be rendered as a comma.”B15
d. There are also
cases in the use of athnach with numbers where it actually has no disjunctive value at all. This is
seen in the enumeration of the children of Benjamin in Gen 46:21:
And the sons of
Benjamin: Bela and Beker, Ashbel and Gera, Ehi and Naaman, Rosh [athnach] and Muppim, and
Huppim and Ard.
As Owusu-Antwi points out;
“The athnach here is put in the middle of one of the five
pairs of names listed. Unless the athnach is regarded as
non-disjunctive, the parallelism in the citation of the names would be
destroyed. Furthermore, the names that come after the athnach cannot be
connected alone with the subsequent clause (vs. 22).”B16
Another example of this case is found in Num
1:46:
And they were a total number
of six hundred and three thousand, [athnach] and five hundred and fifty.
“In Num 1:46, the athnach is placed into one
figure of 603,550, just as in English a comma marks thousands from hundreds. It
cannot be taken as disjunctive, putting a period, colon, or semicolon within
the number.”B17
All of these examples
demonstrate that the presence of an athnach marking does not
automatically indicate a full disjunctive accent in the Hebrew Bible. It is
instead used with a wide range of functions that in some instances are closer
to being conjunctiveR18 than disjunctive. This then means
that the occurrence of an athnach in Dan 9:25 cannot automatically be
given a full disjunctive value. Several points instead show that the
inclusion of this athnach in Dan 9:25 was to emphasize the ‘sixty and
two’ week period of the prophecy that followed the mention of ‘seven week’
period.
First of all the
presence of waw-copulative [conjunctive] "and" between
the ‘seven weeks’ and the ‘sixty-two weeks’ statements should serve as an
indicator that the athnach here does not have a full disjunctive value.
The absence of the temporal preposition lamedh [l] which translates as
"-for [a period of time]; until; etc"R19
in the expression wešbu⊂îm would contradict an
interpretation that radically separates the ‘seven weeks’ from the ‘sixty-two
weeks’ and therefore cause the Hebrew phrase wešābu⊂îm šišîm ûšenayim
[which literally says “and sixty-two weeks”] to be translated as
"and/then for sixty-two weeks." If this prepositional
phrase -"and/then for"- was to be such an integral part
in the text of the prophecy, as some modern interpreters have suggested, then it surely would have been
clearly indicated in the original text of the prophecy. Such a translation that
arbitrarily inserts the preposition forR20 into the
text not only forces it into the text, but also makes a historically
unsupportable prediction that would say that the restoration and building of
Jerusalem would be done over an incredible period of 434 years (7 X
62)! As John E. Goldingay says: such a
lengthy building period “would be odd,”B21 and as Owusu-Antwi
has attested: “there is no historical support for it.”B22
So based on this textual and historical contradiction, this athnach in
Dan 9:25 should not be given a full disjunctive value here.
An argument that
further supports this conclusion is the fact that none of the other ancient
texts and versions that relate to Dan 9:24-27, like: the Qumran text from the
Dead Sea Scrolls; the LXX version (ca. 250 B.C.); the Peshitta in
Syriac (ca. 50 A.D.); the Theodotion version (ca.
180 A.D.); the Latin Vulgate (ca. 400 A.D.); and also
Rabbinic interpretations; do not support a full disjunctive value of the athnach
in Dan 9:25.R23 The mention of non-support in
Rabbinic interpretations is probably the most significant because of the
importance that the Jewish Rabbis (Teachers) would place on accentuation. This
importance is reflected in the statement of twelfth century grammarian and
commentator Abraham ibn Ezra who says:
“You should not listen to, or agree with, any
interpretation which is not consistent with the accentuation.”B24
So, once again, based
on all of this, it is clear that the athnach punctuation in Dan 9:25
does not have, and therefore should not be given, a full disjunctive value. The
questions that could now be asked is: (1) Why then was an athnach placed
between the 7 weeks and the 62 weeks? and also (2) Why was this time period of
69 weeks ever divided into these two odd and unproportional periods in the
first place? Why didn't the prophecy just say that there would be 69 weeks
until the coming of māšîah nāgîd?
There has not been
a definite answer for this unproportional break up of the 69 weeks here, but
over the years commentators have leaned towards two reasons. The first being
that the seven-week period (49 years) were set apart as the period for the
restoration and rebuilding of Jerusalem,R25 but this interpretation
does not hold up in the light of historical scrutiny and recorded developments
as there is no Biblical or extra-biblical support for a conclusion that
Jerusalem was fully restored and then physically rebuilt by the end of this
prophetic 7 weeks (49 years; i.e., by 408 B.C.); and also no
indication that this process even took that long. Since the work on the city
was being carried out, as we have seen, back in about 454 B.C. (cf. Ezra 4:7-23),N26 and the walls were completely rebuilt in
444 B.C. (Neh 6:15), then the physical rebuilding of Jerusalem
could have actually been completely finished long before this suggested date of
408 B.C.
The most likely
explanation for this separated time period may be that it would help to
reestablish among these Jewish returnees, the proper reckoning of the
sabbatical year cycle of 7 X 7 years mentioned in their
Law in Lev 25:1-8. The extended stay of these Jewish exiles in a foreign land
may have caused them to lose track of this mandatory religious cycle, and since
the ignorance of the “sabbath years” (Lev 25:2-4) in this sabbatical cycle had
been the underlying reason why God sent them away as exiles to another land in
the 70-year Babylonian captivity so that the land of Canaan could keep its “sabbaths”N27
(see Lev 26:33-43 & 2 Chr 36:21), then it therefore seems that God here, in
the restoration prophecy of the Seventy Weeks, had purposely expressed this
prophetic time period to clearly mark out and this important forty-nine-year
cycle. Just like He had pointedly instructed His people to “mark off” this
period of “seven times seven years... namely forty-nine years” in Lev
25:8, He was thus starting them off in this important direction here.
Interestingly enough, the Jewish reckoning of sabbatical years coincides with
the starting point of the Seventy weeks of 457 B.C. as that year was a
date in the sabbatical cycle of sabbatical years, followed by 408 B.C., and 359 B.C.; etc.N28
Another possible
explanation for the presence and purpose of the athnach in Dan 9:25 is
understood in the light of the comment by Israel Yeivin who says that:
“There is also a tendency to mark the main division before
some important feature of the verse, so as to emphasize it.”B29 [i.e.s]
We have already noted
this possible function with the athnach accent mark and since as we will
now see, the sixty-two-week statement led up to the coming of a very important figure
identified as "māšîah nāgîd," then
this could very well be the reason (or an additional reason) why an athnach was
placed here; namely to emphasize the coming of māšîah nāgîd
at the end of the sixty-two prophetic weeks.
The Identity of “māšîah
nāgîd” in Dan 9:25
Based on the various
ways that the major English versions of the Bible have translated the
expression māšîah nāgîd in Dan 9:25,
interpreters and commentators have suggested various historical figures as the
one that is identified here in the prophecy. So it is therefore necessary to
first arrive at the exact translation of this expression here in order to then
be able to accurately identify who fulfilled it historically.
The RSV, NRSV, and
NEB/REB have translated māšîah nāgîd as: “an
anointed one, a prince;” “an anointed prince;” “one anointed, a prince;”
respectively. The NIV has translated this expression more specifically by
saying that it would be: “the Anointed One, the ruler.” The KJV, NKJV and the
NASB have gone a step further by saying that this expression referred to the
double title: “Messiah, the Prince.” Which one of these translations is the
most accurate?
The expression māšîah
is a noun which comes from the root mšh which literally means
"to smear, anoint."R30 Māšîah is
usually assigned the same meaning as the Qal passive participle
"anointed" except when it is used as a noun, as it is here in Dan
9:25. At that time it is then assigned the meaning of : "an anointed
one."R31
Māšîah occurs 38 times in
the Old Testament and is consistently used to refer generically to anyone who
was anointed by God,S32 but what is interesting about the mention
of māšîah in Dan 9:25 (and also in Dan 9:26) is that these are
the only time in the Old Testament that it occurs in an absolute form,R33
meaning that it has neither an article nor a suffix attached to it to
qualify it. Therefore, this absolute title here should be understood to be a
title or a proper name.R34 So as E. B. Pusey pointed out, māšîah
here is not to be translated as "the Anointed of the Lord,"
"Thy Anointed," "His Anointed," "the
Anointed of the God of Jacob," or "the anointed priest
-but as the proper name Messiah: "Anointed."B35
This is the understanding that
the KJV, NKJV and NASB have also arrived at as reflected in their translation
of māšîah as: “Messiah.”
As for the expression nāgîd,
since it is in a juxtaposed position to the absolute form expression māšîah,
it should then be understood as being used in an absolute sense and
should therefore also be considered as a title, but one that is separate and
distinct from the title māšîah. While nāgîd is
used in the Old Testament to refer to someone who rules over others, or over
something,S36 or someone who is in a position of command,S37
or the “ruler” in the house of God,S38 the use of nāgîd
in Dan 9:25 should be interpreted in the light of its use with the title māšîah,.
This means that it should be translated
according to the use of nāgîd in the Old Testament that
refers to someone who has been chosen or “anointed” to become a “ruler” over a
people or a nation, and such a person was actually: "a King."S39
Now since the actual
Hebrew word for "prince" is not nāgîd but nāśîy⊃/nāśî⊃, S40 then this cannot be
the translation and meaning of nāgîd in Dan 9:25 as some
have suggested. Also since the Hebrew expression for a military
"prince" is śar,S41 and since it is this
expression śar that is consistently used in the book of Daniel as such,S42
then it can also be concluded here that if this was the function of this
historical figure in Dan 9:25, then surely it would be this clear expression -śar
that would have been used here instead of nāgîd.
Furthermore, the two
titles māšîah nāgîd cannot be translated as
a descriptive phrase "an anointed prince" with the expression “anointed”
functioning as an attributive adjective since this translation would go against
the rules of Hebrew Grammar. If that was to be the translation here then these
expressions in the Hebrew text would be reversed, i.e., nāgîd
māšîah for an attributive adjective in Hebrew (unlike English)
normally follows the noun it modifies,R43 with the exception
to this rule being when numerical terms like (esp.) “many” (Hebrew: rab
-not in the sense of ‘great’), “little” (Heb.-me⊂aţ) or “all”(Heb.-kôl) are the
adjectives.R44 So māšîah is indeed here
functioning as an absolute noun/title.
These grammatical
analyses of this
double title in Dan 9:25 is important because, as we have already mentioned,
some interpreters have suggested various historical figures as the predicted māšîah
nāgîd of Dan 9:25 based on grammatically incorrect
translations. These are figures such as Cyrus,R45 Zerubbabel,R46
Joshua, the high priest,R47 Onias III, the high
priest,R48 the Hasmonaean Aristobulus I,R49
but these interpretation do not hold up under exegetical scrutiny and also for
chronological reasons;R50 but based upon all of the above
mentioned linguistic, reasons, the expression māšîah nāgîd
would be most accurately translated here as "Messiah, Ruler" or
"Messiah, the Ruler" and since, as we have already pointed out, a
"ruler" who was anointed was usually a King,S51
then māšîah nāgîd in Dan 9:25 would be
more precisely translated as: "Messiah, the King."
Now based on this translation
of "Messiah, the King," it should now become easy to pinpoint the
historical figure that fulfills this specific part of the prophecy as there is
only one Person in human history that rightfully fulfilled this double absolute
title of "Messiah" and "King" and that of course was none
other than Jesus Christ, the “King of Kings” (cf. 1 Tim 6:15, 16),S52
for not only was Jesus prophesied as the Messiah, but He was also prophesied to
be the One who would come from the tribe of Judah and be a ruler over Israel
(Micah 5:2).S53
It would now be
somewhat interesting to take a more specific look into the gospel narratives
and see specifically how Jesus did indeed fulfill these two titles as Messiah
and King.
In the
"Annunciation" of Christ’s birth to Mary, (Luke1:26-38), the Angel
Gabriel (the same messenger for the Seventy Week Prophecy) had told Mary that
her Child would (originally) be known as Jesus (vs. 31) (cf. Luke 2:21),but
later on, Jesus became publicly known as Jesus Christ, after began His
ministry, which, as it is known, literally means: Jesus, the Messiah (cf. Matt
1:16; 16:16; 27:18, 22; Luke 4:41, 42). This is also how He referred to Himself
(Matt 16:20; cf. 22:42; John 4:25, 29).N54
The Angel Gabriel had
also announced to Mary that this special Child would be given “the throne of
His father David,” (Luke 1:32) and that He would “reign over the house of Jacob
forever” (vs. 33).S55 It
had been this understanding that the Messiah of the Jews would also be a King
that made the Magi travel from the East (ca. Babylon?) to Palestine in order to
worship this New Born King in person. Upon their arrival in Jerusalem they
forthrightly asked the Jewish religious leaders: “Where is He who has been born
King of the Jews?” (Matt 2:2).N56 While Jesus repeatedly refused to be publicly
heralded and crowned as the King of Israel during His public ministry (cf. John
6:15), He still left no doubt in the mind of the people that He did consider
Himself to be the King of the Jews. When He was asked by Pilate during His
trial: “Are You the King of the Jews?” He replied by saying: “It is as you say.”
(Luke 23:3). Also when Pilate went on to make an inscription that said that
Jesus was "The King of the Jews,"N57 the only objection
that the chief priests could make was that they felt it should rather read: “He
said, ‘I am the King of the Jews.’” (John 19:21 [i.e.s]). Similarly,
when Jesus was asked by the Jewish religious leader if He was “the Christ, the
Son of God,” He also replied by saying: “It is as you say.” (Matt 26:63, 64).N58
Obviously Jesus had revealed His actual prophesied identity quite explicitly
and clearly.
The double title of
Jesus as "Messiah" and "King" was also explicitly alluded
to by the chief priests and the scribes when, in their ignorant arrogance, they
challenged Jesus at Calvary by saying: “Let the Christ, the King
of Israel, descend now from the cross that we may see and believe.” Mark 15:32
[i.e.s]. (If only they had realized the great truth in their words).
So
now if we turn to the chronological time period that is associated with this
coming of māšîah nāgîd -Jesus Christ; we see
that the 69 prophetic weeks convert to 483 literal years and if we then count
off these years from the starting point of the prophecy in the fall of 457 B.C., we end up in the fall of 27 A.D.N59 So then: What
significant historical event took place that would signal the official coming
of Messiah, the King at the end of the 62 weeks period, in the fall of 27 A.D.?
The Anointing of “Messiah,
the King”
It was a required rite in Israel’s religious economy that
any person who was going to take on a public function/office (i.e., ministry)
be anointed with oil, and that by the person that he would be succeeding, or
acting under, or in continuance of. Usually that predecessor themselves was
also a previously anointed person. In this way personal figures such as kings,S60
priests,S61 and prophetsS62 were officially anointed
for public function.
The expectation for someone who had been anointed was
that from then on he would act, think, and make decisions that would reflect
the mind and will of God. (E.g., 1 Sam 16:13; cf. 10:6, 7) In this way this
person was consider to now have the Spirit of God strongly guiding, and working
in, him. This was what the symbolism of the pouring of oil upon the head of
this anointed person entailed. They would similarly be imbued with the Spirit
of God, and unlike water that was meant to naturally dissipate, oil was instead
meant to literally stick to the person. (It was probably not expressedly washed
off once the ceremony was completed).
Many people engaged in official public ministry in Israel
during the 69 prophetic weeks/483 years from the start of this chronological
period, and thus were so anointed, but there is one that stands out amongst all
of them for its wide reaching and unprecedented miraculous acts and impact, as
thus notably recorded in Scripture, and which ended up having many “separated”
followers, and this was the public ministry of Jesus of Nazareth in Israel. The
question then is, was Jesus of Nazareth anointed for this grand ministry.
In retelling the events that had recently transpired in
the public ministry of Jesus, the Apostle Peter in Acts 10:37, 38 spoke of:
“The word which He [God] sent to the sons of Israel,
preaching [the gospel of] peace through Jesus Christ . . . which was proclaimed throughout all Judea and
starting from Galilee after the baptism which John proclaimed: how
God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power . . .”
Acts 10:36-38.[i.e.s.].
Peter goes on to speak of how Jesus engaged in a ministry
towards the poor, sick, needy and variously oppressed. Indeed, as it will be
seen, the Gospel accounts testify to this precise development.
When Jesus was baptized with water (Luke 3:16a) by
John in the Jordan,S63 the baptism itself did not come to anoint
Jesus, but an incident immediately following this, as Jesus went on to pray on
the banks of the Jordan river, did. It is then that the heavens were opened,
literally “as a result” of Christ’s prayer (Luke 3:21) and the Holy Spirit
descended upon Jesus in the form of a Dove and thus anointed Him directly,
i.e., without the use of the symbolism of oil, and that by God Himself, thus
further indicating that Jesus had received His commission directly from God. Indeed God the
Father had said almost 700 years before the advent of Jesus:
“Behold! My Servant whom I uphold, My Elect One in whom My soul
delights! I have put My Spirit upon Him.” (Isaiah 42:1S64)
Then when the event
officially manifesting this occurred in this Baptism, God then announced that:
“This is my Beloved Son in whom I am well
pleased.” (Matt 3:16, 17; cf. John 1:32).
As John the Baptist
later declared, it was in order for the Messiah to be revealed to Israel that
he had come baptizing with water. (John 1:31). Later on, Andrew went to find
his brother Simon Peter and said to him: “We have found the Messiah” (which is
translated, the Christ) (John 1:35-37, 40, 41). And also, as Jesus had reminded
John at the time of the baptism: ‘Permit it to be so now, for thus it is
fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness’ (i.e. all "right
doing" or "all what is right in God’ eyes") Matt 3:15 [i.e.s.].
Indeed in carrying out this act they would also be fulfilling what had been
prophesied centuries before.
The pivotal and “empowering” significance of this baptism
event is seen in statements and actions such as: Luke 4:1 which goes on to
mention that Jesus returned from the Jordan “full of the Spirit.” Jesus Himself
highlighted and emphasized the importance of His special anointing with God’s
Spirit in His first recorded public sermon in Luke 4:18-21ff, as he read from
Isa 61:1 which begins with : ‘The Spirit of the Lord God (lit. Yawheh) is upon
me,...’ This passage then goes on to detail the reason why it would be manifest
that this “Servant” had indeed been anointed with God’s Spirit through the good
works that he would engage in. This was indeed the impetus and central message
of Christ’s ministry (Matt. 25:31-46; Acts 10:38; cf. Matt 11:5).
Kilian McDonnell has
summarized the important Messianic fulfillment found in Christ’s baptism by
saying that:
“When Christians confess that Jesus is the Christ,
they confess their belief that he is the Messiah, the Anointed One whom the
prophets foretold. This cannot be considered a secondary title. Rather it
defines who he is by becoming part of his personal name, Jesus Christ. Jesus is
anointed with the Spirit at his baptism, thus becoming the Christ. Anointing
and the baptism of Jesus are inextricably linked. And in the Gospels, the
baptism is linked to the Title of Christ.”B65
So clearly, Jesus officially appeared on the scene as
the “Messiah, the “Anointed One” at His Baptism in the Jordan, and subsequent,
immediate anointing directly by God’s Spirit.N66 Thus the prophesied
coming of the "Messiah," who was born "King of the Jews,"
was fulfilled in this baptism of Jesus. The important question that now needs
to be answered is: Does the historical date of Christ's baptism harmonize with
the chronological specification in Dan 9:25; i.e., in 27 A.D.?
Because various dates
for Christ's baptism have been suggested by commentators ranging mainly from 26
A.D.-29 A.D., it is therefore important to
make here a somewhat fresh and in-depth analysis of the date of this event.
The Date of Christ’s Baptism
Following a brief
account of Christ’s birth and growing up years (Luke 1 & 2), Luke, in his
gospel account, goes on to discuss the circumstances that surrounded the
beginnings of Christ’s public ministry (Luke 3) by first mentioning that “in
the fifteenth of the ‘reign’ of Tiberius Caesar” (Luke 3:1) that John the
Baptist “went into all the regions around the Jordan, preaching a baptism of
repentance the remission of sins,” (Luke 3:3) and that as the other Gospels
indicate, that “at that time, Jerusalem and all of Judea and all the region
around the Jordan was going out to him and were being baptized by him in the
Jordan.” (See Matt 3:5 & Mark 1:5). Now the Gospel accounts are also clear
in pointing out that it was specifically during these times of baptisms that
Jesus also went to the Jordan to be baptized by John (Matt 3:13; Mark 1:9; Luke
3:21). So now if we can figure out in what calender year this “fifteenth year
of the ‘reign’ of Tiberius Caesar” fell in, then we would have the historical year in which Jesus was
baptized.N67 This can indeed be done by determining exactly how this
fifteenth year’ was being reckoned by Luke, but this question cannot actually
be easily resolved here without an in-depth investigation, due to the fact that
there were various methods and calenders that were used during the days of
Luke, by varying people groups, to reckon the regnal years of the ruling Roman
Emperors.
When was the
Fifteenth Year of Tiberius Caesar?
In reckoning the regnal
years of Tiberius Caesar, Luke could either have been using: (1) the dating
system of his native land of SyriaN68 -the Syrian-Macedonian
method; (2) the Jewish method; (3) the typical/official Roman method; or (4) he
could have been reckoning these years from the time when Tiberius had become a
co-regent with Augustus Caesar.
Since Luke’s gospel is
specifically addressed to a Roman official -a certain “Most Excellent [Gk.-kratisteN69],
TheophilusN70,” it is therefore very unlikely that he
would have been using either his native Syrian-Macedonian system or the Jewish
system since they were both mostly only known, and used by only the local
people, and with them being based on exclusive calenders.N71
This conclusion is further supported by the fact that throughout his gospel,
Luke often tries to avoid using Jewish terms/expressions that Theophilus may
not comprehend.S72 This approach of Luke is also highlighted
by its contrast with Mark’s approach, who, although he was (also) writing to a
Roman "audience," he chose to translate or explain some of the
Jewish expressions and customs after mentioning them rather than simply
avoiding them altogether, or rewording them.N73 74
Now because Luke was
indeed writing to a Roman official, some have then automatically concluded that
he was using the official Roman method and calender to reckon the years of
Tiberius here, and that, based on this method, Jesus’s baptism took place
sometime in the regnal year of Tiberius which fell between August 19, A.D. 28 and August 19, A.D. 29,R75
since Tiberius’s sole rule began on August 19, 14 A.D., when Augustus died.R76
However, this view does not hold up for two reasons. First of all,
there is no contextual evidence that Luke was using the official Roman
method as he showed no sign of using the official Roman formula
in stating this date in Luke 3:1. It was the custom of the Romans to date the
year of an event after the names of the two consuls (the joint chief
magistrates of the Roman republic) who were in office that year.R77
According to this formula,
Luke would have dated the year of the baptism by saying that it took place: “In
the consulship of and ,” with the names of the
two consuls of that year filling in the blanks.R78 In the years that fell in the believed range
for Christ’s baptism of 26-29 A.D., the Roman consuls who were
in office were:
26 A.D. Getulico and Sabino
27
A.D. Grasso and
Pisone
28
A.D. Silano and
Nerva
but Luke makes absolutely no
reference to them, even in his lengthy and specific list of people who were in
office when John began his ministry. He instead mentions to his friend
Theophilus as 'additional circumstances' some of the other notable rulers who
were in office during that. He (literally) said:
and Philip, his
brother had been ruling as a tetrach in the district of Iturea
and Tranchonitis; [4 B.C. - 33/34 A.D.]
and (also) while Lysanias
had been ruling in the area of Abilene as a tetrach;’N84
and that this was also:
As it turns out, the
key to determining the exact way in which Luke was counting these regnal years of Tiberius is indicated by the
interesting Greek word that he uses here- hēgemonias (which is conveniently,
though inaccurately, translated as: "reign"N86).
This word is classified in the Greek vocabulary of the New Testament as
a hapax legomenon ("lone mention") as it occurs only once.
However its occurrence in a number of other Greek writings, such as Classical
Greek [480],R87 Greek & Roman Papyri [156],R88
the Septuagint [7],R89 the writings of Josephus [148],R90
etc., is indeed ample, totaling at least 1536 uses, in its various related
forms. These ample examples are helpful to arrive at its specific meaning in
this text.
The 628+ uses in
Classical Greek and the writings of Josephus can be, less than more, somewhat
looselyE91 grouped into the following 15 major
categories ([##] = number of uses): 1. Share of Power [27];R92
2. General Leadership [33];R93 3. Office Leadership [82];R94
4. Supremacy [86];R95 5. Hegemony [National] [110];R96
6. Kingly Power [48];R97 7. Military Command [110];R98
8. Roman Emperor [32];R99 9. Empire/Dominion [23];R100
10. Authority [7];R101 11. Roman Empire/Dominion [38];R102
12. Greece National Leadership [4];R103 13. Israel’s Kingdom
[2];R104 14. Government [7];R105 and 15. various
miscellaneous uses [19];R106
From these uses,
several are notable examples of these categories as sampled here below:E107
[#7] - The leadership in the Roman goverment being
shared by three leaders (Lepidus, Antony and Octavius) in a triumvirate.
[#80] - One part of a full command of an allied
power between two peoples (the Argives and Lacedaemonians).
[#163] - Two states
dividing the supremacy between them.
[#281] - Sharing in a military command.
[#286] - The Persians and the Greeks theoretically not being
seen as capable of peacefully sharing in world dominion.
[#309] - The
Lacedaemonians and Athenians sharing in the hegemony by yielding the
dominance of land and of sea to the other.
[#323] - Cities equally dividing the command when in a joint military
expedition.
[#85] - The city of
Argives being selected to hold the position of leader from a large
number of joined cities.
[#87] - The tribe of
Judah being committed with the government of Israel after the death of
Joshua and Eleazar the priest in the period of the Judges.
[#122] - Ishmael
being brought up to succeed in the leadership of Abraham’s household.
[#269] - The
successors of Joshua in the government of Israel.
[#368] - Jair the Gileadite,
of the tribe of Manasseh, taking the government of the tribe.
[#60] - Laying down the office of leading the
Achaeans as it had been predetermined and being succeeded in this command.
[#146] - Pontius
Pilate being the successor of Gratus in the Roman government of the Jewish
nation/province.
[#361] - The Roman command
of their provinces.
[#447] - Public
officers who hold the presidencies of court.
[#388] - Laconians
being deprived of their previous hegemony/supremacy on land and sea
first by the Thebans, and immediately after them by the Macedonians.
[#413] - The Ionians
getting rid of the empire and supremacy of the Lacedaemonians.
[#431] - A third
nation making claims to the leadership then shared by the Lacedaemonians
and Athenians.
[#42] - Speaking of
the cause of the destruction of the Medes as their inhumane and brutal leadership
and supremacy which its subject people did not seek to aid in strenghtening.
[#46] - The Persian supremacy
that Alexander was about to overthrow.
[#83] - A distribution
of the hegemony of Roman provinces.
[#129] - A country being naturally well suited to hegemony.
[#271] - The kings in
Sparta preserving the hegemony in Greece for their country just so long
as they faithfully obeyed the ephors (a body of five magistrates) and were
content to reign jointly with them.
[#349] - A dual land
and sea leadership becoming “lame” if one of these two leaderships were lost.
[#473] - A city
entitlement to the hegemony being questioned by their impeacheable
record since being sovereign at sea.
[#553] - Italy being
well-suited for the hegemony because of its natural and geographical features
and the valor of its people.
[#15] - Saul, as
king, having dominion over the tribes.
[#94] - God having
consented that David and his posterity should be Israel’s rulers for all time.
[#212] - Artaxerxes, Darius’s eldest son succeeding
him to the leadership of Medo-Persia.
[#273] - David having
received the government of Israel from God.
[#330] - Aeropus,
king of the Macedonians being succeeded in the sovereignty by his son
Pausanias
[#363] - Satyrus,
king of the Bosporus being succeeded in the rulership by his son Leucon.
[#411] - Quarrel
among Darius’ sons concerning the chief power in land of Persia as to
the rightful heir to this kingship.
[#500] - Lacedaemonians have conferred upon his descendants the
kingship and [or that is?] the power of command for all time.
[#565] - Spartacus,
king of the Pontus being succeeded in the rulership by his brother
Paerisades.
[#5] - Persian king Darius entrusting Memnon with the supreme
military command.
[#26] - Lacedaemonians
having the command in a war expedition of the Greeks, with their king
Agis having the position of commander in chief.
[#311] - A meeting being called for all who had been
charged with a military command.
[#320] - The officers of the barbarians, in minor commands,
being Persians with Cyrus himself being the commander-in-chief of the
whole army.
[#471] -
Tissaphernes, a Persian noble, succeeding stricken Cyrus to the supreme
military command.
[#34] - Josephus’ book Antiquities being from the
Creation to the twelfth year of the reign of
Nero.
[#315] - Roman defeat occurring in the twelfth year of
the reign of Nero.
[#348] - Josephus being born in the first year of the reign of Nero, with his
three sons being born in the fourth, seventh and ninth years of the reign of Vespasian.
[#200] - The Roman government
being considered to be at its best when the leader is leading and
not reigning.
[#474] - Extending
the sway or authority of the Romans throughout the world.
[#438] - The vast
Roman Empire having been brought about by the divine assistance of God.
[#608] - Augustus
Caesar having caused the Romans to have a great dominion since he
assumed the absolute authority (Gk. autotelê) now being passed on to, and modelled by Tiberius.
[#179] - The vigorous
and rapid Alexander having secured the leadership of all of Greece.
[#427] - Rulers
in Israel under king David.
[#317] - The Athenian government being headed by
Archons.
[#9] - In nature,
female fishes taking over the lead from the males in a return trip.
Among lexical works,
the word hēgemonias has been defined by as: "authority,
command, rule, office of a superior, preeminence;"B123
"leading the way, going first;"B124 "chief command
direction, management of any high office."B125 What the
above examples, and these summary definitions rightly show in regards to this
present study is that hēgemonias is not limited to the office of
a Roman Emperor, but refers to anything that is given, or exercises, a position
of (relatively) supreme/determinating authority.
hēgemonias vs. archēs
The specific meaning of
the word hēgemonias as referering to a “power” or “authority” can
be further seen in its repeated related use in the same context with another similar
but distinct word, namely archēs (ca. 44 times). The word archēs
itself is defined as one that “always signifies primacy. whether in time:
"beginning," principium, or in rank: "power,"
"dominion," "office."”B126 However several
examples use these two distinct expressions to refer to: (1) a head of state’s
established/past and/or ongoing rule or his “government” in general
(archēs), and the (obtainable/possessed)
power (hēgemonias) aspect in that position/office;R127
(2) a position of which required some discretionary decision making such as an ‘emperor’
and a ‘governor of Roman province,’ (hēgemonias) vs. someone who, effectively, simply has to
apply the existing law like a ‘magistrate’ (archēs).R128
There are also other examples of (archēs) which demonstrate its
inherent/underlying meaning as something that has authority due to its “agedness/ancientness”R129
or in some way, being “established”R130; among other related
miscellaneous uses.R131 All of the uses show that the term archēs, while being in
certain contexts somewhat a cognate of hēgemonias, specifically,
tersely, refers to a ‘government’ in
general while the latter term refers to the particular ‘power’ within, or for,
such a government.
As some examples, in
retelling of his life, Josephus speaks of the favors that the Roman Empire
granted him by saying that Emperor Vespasian gave him a pension, honored him
with the privilege of Roman citizenship, and also gave him a lodging in the
house which he had occupied ‘before his leadership [hēgemonias]
(of the Roman Empire) came to be.’B132 Here it can be seen that
he was referring to the authority that
had been bestowed upon Vespasian which then elevated him to the position of
Emperor. On the other hand, Roman historian Dio Cassius, speaking of first ‘the
tenth year,’B133 and then ‘the twentieth year’B134
of the "reign" of Tiberius, twice uses the word archēs and not
hēgemonias. He even demonstrates a comprehension of the
distinction between these two words by saying later in one passage that upon
the 20th year anniversary celebration of “Tiberius’s primacy/rule” (archēs)
the Senate once again granted to Tiberius the “leadership [hēgemonias]
of the State.”B135 However since he places Tiberius’s 20th
year in 34 A.D.,R136 he then was
counting this “primacy/rule” of Tiberius from his sole rulership which
started, as we have seen, on August 19 of 14 A.D.N137
This understanding of
Dio Cassius of the distinction between these two words is also seen in an
interesting statement he makes in regards to the commencement of Tiberius’s
rule as he says:
Now when no further news of any rebellious moves came and
the whole Roman world had acquiesced securely in his leadership [hēgemonias],
Tiberius accepted the rule [archēs] without further dissimulation, and
exercised it....B138
This statement clearly
showed that Tiberius was considered to have had, and made use of his possessed hēgemonias (“leadership/power”), and that within
his now more formally accepted archēs “rule”.
Josephus also
demonstrates a comprehension of the distinction between these two words. He
uses the word archēs to speak of’ the 20th year the “primacy/rule”
rule Tiberius,’B139 but then says that Gaius was chosen by
Tiberius to be “the successor of the leadership [hēgemonias]
[of the Roman Empire].N140 Since he adds that
Tiberius had had a “primacy/rule” [archēn] of 22 years, 5 months and 3
days,B141 it then indicates, that he was also reckoning the “primacy/rule”
of Tiberius from after the death Augustus in August (19) of 14 A.D.N142
Based on all of these
points, it can be concluded that since Luke uses the term hēgemonias
instead of the quite possible archēs this strongly suggest that he predominantly
here had the “power” that Tiberius possessed as Emperor in mind, instead of
strictly/generally his government/rule as a whole. At the very least, the use
of hēgemonias here certainly, overtly leaves this possibility
open whereas the use of archēs would not so.
Military Uses
What is further quite
interesting and significant about the use of the word hēgemonia,
to our present inquiry of Luke’s use of this word in reference to an Emperor,
is that it is repeatedly used in a military setting; that is in
reference to things pertaining to war or the army. This is seen in further
examples in addition to the ones cited above in subsection #7 such as the
following:
- Hēgemonias
is used in the LXX version of Gen 36:15ff, in first of all, the related forms: hēgemōn
and hēgemones, to refer to the individual military chief(s) in
the ancient nation of Edom (Esau’s descendants). Then in verse 30, the summary
statement is made in reference to the ‘chiefs of the Horites’ with another form
of hēgemonias as it is said that:
Hēgemonias is also found in another similar
military-arrangement-setting, in Num 1:52 and 2:17 LXX, but this time it is in
relation to the nation of Israel and their own military census (Num 1 & 2).
Hēgemonias is used there to refer to the military standards (or
banners) that each tribe had to position themselves behind when they arranged
themselves in set ranks, as they were about to migrate to another location.
-Hēgemonias
is also used in the Apocryphal book 4th Maccabees in a passage
dealing with a figurative battle between the "reason" and
"passion." This passage sums up this "conflict" by saying:
“But now, since reasoning conquered the passions, we
befittingly award it the authority of first place.” 4 Macc 6:33.N144
- Also, in telling
about a siege that Romans had placed on the Gauls, the Roman author Plutarch
says:
“The siege lasted a long time, and the Gauls began to
lack provisions. They therefore divided their forces. Some remained with their
king and watched the Capitol, others ravaged the country round about, falling
upon the villages and sacking them, not all together in one body, but scattered
about by commands [i.e. under their military divisions/commanders].”B145
- The word hēgemonias
is also repeatedly used in reference to the commander-in-chief of an army:
For example, Greek
philosopher Plato says:
- Also, Greek historian
Thucydides, describes a military officer by the name of Pagondas, as being in “chief
command” in a war between the Boeotians and the Athenians;B147
-and Strabo, the Geographer, uses hēgemonias to say that:
Augustus Caesar “native land committed to him the
foremost place of authority and he became established as lord for
life of war and peace,”[i.e.s]B148
It has already been
stated that hēgemonias was repeatedly used to refer to the rule
of Roman prefects and also that this
office many times included military powers,N149 but it should
also be mentioned here that the commander-in-chief of the Praetorian Guard (the
9000 member elite corps of the Emperor), was also referred to as a:
"Prefect."R150
The significance of
this particular meaning of the word hēgemonias, as a
militaristic authority is seen in the fact pointed out by W. T. Arnold in his
book on Roman Imperialism as he says that:
“the Emperor
was many things, but before and above all he was commander-in-chief of the
Roman army.”B151
Arnold goes on to point
out that, the "military" function of the Roman Emperor “was, in fact,
the historical result of the conquest of provinces, and of the great military
commands which had been rendered necessary.”B152 This
position of military command was called the Imperium, which is the Latin
equivalent of the Greek word hēgemonias;R153
and in fact, the Latin Vulgate has, apparently based on such an equivocation,
translated this Greek word as: “imperii.”
In speaking of this
Imperial power, Arnold also states that:
“It was the kernel of the new Imperial authority, and
to have it was in fact to be Emperor. Other component parts of the Imperial
authority-even so important a part as the Tribunician power might be added
later; they might even never be held at all; but the proconsular imperiumN154 and the Emperor
were inseparable . . . For the Senate to
give a man the proconsular imperium was to formally to hand over to him the
entire army and the provinces which it garrisoned, together of course with the
revenues of those provinces-in other words to put the state at his disposal.”B155
Thus the title Imperator
indicated “supreme military victoriousness”B156 and therefore
had the literal meaning of a "victorious commander."
The "Tribunician
power" which Arnold says could be added to the Emperor’s imperium
power, would then make him the chief-magistrate of Rome. This would mean that
he would also have supreme judicial power and would therefore have the
unlimited veto power and the unlimited power of interfering to protect anyone
who was being unjustly treated or wronged by other magistrates.R157
Therefore it was the bestowal of these two powers, and particularly that of
the (proconsular) imperium that made a Roman Citizen become the Roman
Emperor.
All of these facts
about these two important powers of the Emperor come to play a very significant
role in understanding how Luke was reckoning the years of Tiberius when the historical
circumstances surrounding the accession of
Tiberius are considered here.
After August had
essentially created a new office in the Roman Republic in the "Emperor," he greatly feared that,
upon his death, it would be done away with by the powerful Senate,R158
so he took it into his hands, during the last years of his life/reign, to
assure its survival and continuity by selecting the most competent person to be
his successor in this position. Augustus originally had hoped that either one
of his
youthful grandchildren, Gaius or Lucius, would succeed him to this
position, but in 6 B.C., their arrogance exasperated
him and he lost hope in them. He therefore turned his attention to the more
promising Tiberius. Augustus went on to bestow upon Tiberius the tribunician
power for the next 5 years, but at the conclusion of this term, the reserved
Tiberius took an unauthorized 5-year leave of absence from Rome. Upon Tiberius’s
return to Rome in 4 A.D., Augustus, who was still
eager to see him become the next Emperor, renewed his tribunician power for the
next ten years and also adopted the then 45 year-old TiberiusR159
to doubly ensure that nothing would hinder his future accession to the office
of Emperor.R|N160 Then Augustus went a significant
step further as he wanted to leave no doubt as to who he wanted his successor
to be and had the Senate pass a consular law to bestow upon Tiberius a proconsular
imperium that was equal to his own throughout the Empire.R161
This superior power of Tiberius was called the Imperium Maius.R162
Augustus also went on to renew the Tribunician power of Tiberius, but this
time for life. (Year)
Statue of Tiberius (+37AD) |
The Imperium Maius
power thus granted Tiberius “military powers that were fully equal to those of
the then ruling Emperor Augustus [over the provinces and the armies],”B163
and this, in effect, made Tiberius a co-ruling Emperor with Augustus. He
therefore assumed the full prerogatives of an Emperor such as sitting next
toN164 Augustus in the Senate and conducting a census with him in
early 14 A.D.R165 (which numbered 4,937,000
Roman citizensR166). Also, immediately following August’s
death, Tiberius gave the "watchword" to the praetorian cohorts, as
Roman historian Tacitus says, as “commander-in-chief,”B167
and also appointed a new leader to rule over it,R168
since he already had the Imperial power to do so. Also, by virtue of his
tribunician power, he went on to convoke the Senate to discuss funeral
arrangements for Augustus.R169
A statement by Tacitus
in his Roman Annals shows that Tiberius indeed now possessed all of the
external attributes and powers needed to be recognized as an (co-)Emperor
saying that [enumeration emphasis supplied]:
“... in him [Tiberius (Nero)] everything tended
to centre. He was [1] adopted as a son, as [2] a colleague in
empire and [3] a partner in the tribunitian power, and [4]
paraded through all the armies,...”B|N170
The close approximate
date of this event can be determined based upon a entry in a Roman Almanac
(know in Latin as a Fasti) of that time. In the entry for the day
October 23 a mention is made of Tiberius celebrating a Triumph. This was a
triumph to commemorate his subduing of a revolt in Germany sometime in late 12 A.D., soon after October 23,R171 (almost surely by
January (13 A.D.)-the start of the Roman New Year). In fact by April 3rd
of 13 A.D.R172 Augustus was concretizing the factual
certainty of being succeeded by Tiberius by naming in his will Tiberius and his
wife, Livia, as his first-degree heirs of his entire estate, and also ‘orderingE173
them to bear his Imperial titular name,’ as “Augustus” and “Augusta”,
respectively.N174.
Additional concrete
evidence for the widely known and recognized co-regency of Tiberius with
Augustus was seen in the fact that gold coins struck at Lugdunum, GaulE175
in the last year of Augustus’s life (13/14 A.D.) were stamped with
the head of Augustus Caesar appearing on one side, and that of Tiberius on the
other:
with the inscriptions being: on Augustus’s side (left):
Augustus & Tiberius Coin 13/14 AD |
“CAESAR AVGVSTVS DIVI F[ilius] PATER PATRIAE”
(The Divine Son Augustus Caesar-Father
of the Land)
and on Tiberius’s side (right):
“TI. CAESAR AVG[usti] F[ilius]
TR[ibunicia] POT[estate] XV”
(Tiberius Caesar, Son of Augustus,
Tribunician Power for the 15th time)R176
Two other (key) coins
from Antioch in Syria of the regnal years 12/13 and 13/14 A.D.,N177 were struck with the head of Tiberius appearing on them along with the
Imperial title Kaisar Sebastos.R178 Also an inscription from
Samaria referring to both Augustus and Tiberius as Emperors, provided a direct
reference to them being emperors together.R179
So based on all of
these concrete evidences, Tiberius effectively and officially indeed became
Emperor of Rome in the year 13 A.D. and while he may have been
hailed with "Imperial Salutations" as early as 11 A.D., due to his great military exploits,R180 he was not
necessarily an Imperial co-regent at that time because, as W.T. Arnold points
outs, "to call a man imperator and to give him the imperium were by no
means one and the same thing."B181 This is seen in the fact that Augustus
Caesar himself had once been hailed as "imperator" back in 40 B.C., but he did not get the necessary proconsular imperium until 27 B.C.N182 Also in A.D. 22, a certain Junius Blaesus was
saluted as Imperator, but he never became an Emperor; R183
and similarly, later on, in A.D. 70, the Roman General Flavius
Titus would also be hailed as Imperator following his conquest of Judea
and Jerusalem,N184 but he did not become Emperor until 79 A.D.R185
It must be
elaborated on here that concerning the date of A.D.13 for the consular
law that made Tiberius a co-regent with Augustus, modern-day historians have
had to choose whether to go by the account of Roman historians Velleius
Paterculus or Gaius Suetonius because Paterculus seems to imply that
this consular law was passed before the celebration of Tiberius’s
triumph over Pannonia and DalmatiaR186 (that is in either A.D. 11 or 12) while Gaius Suetonius indicates that this consular law was
passed after this triumphal celebrationN187 (in A.D. 13). There are three possible ways that this apparent contradiction can
actually be resolved.
First of all, as we
have seen already, most modern-day historians have opted here for the storyline
of Suetonius and the date of 13 A.D.R188 this is despite
the fact that Paterculus was a contemporary of Tiberius as he served in various
military positions during Tiberius’s campaigns in Germany, Pannonia and
Dalmatia,R189 and also despite the fact that
Paterculus wrote his Compendium (of Roman History) in 30 A.D.R190 while Suetonius wrote his history of Tiberius sometime between the
years 98-117 A.D.R191 What has apparently
given Suetonius’s account more credibility and reliability here is the fact
that around the time when was writing his account (of at least Augustus) he was
a minor secretary and the director of the imperial librariesR192
and also had access to official Roman documents such as record of the
transactions of the Senate.R193 He therefore more than
likely, had had access to Paterculus’s Compendium, but obviously he did
not subscribe to it. It therefore seems that he made a correction of Paterculus’s
account here. The official Roman documents probably clearly indicated that the
consular law was passed in 13 A.D. This would not be the first
time that Suetonius would have corrected an earlier historical account while
compiling his own “official” historical account. For example, while writing on
the life of Emperor Gaius Caligula, Suetonius pointed out that historian
Lentulus Gaetulicus, who was a contemporary of Emperor Gaius,R194
was mistaken about the place of birth of Gaius.R195 He then
goes on to quote a couple of other Roman historical sources to further validate
his correction.R196 Also in quoting the work of Roman
encyclopedist “Pliny the Elder” (23. A.D.-79 A.D.),N197 he further pointed out that:
“Pliny has
erred in his chronology; for the historians of Augustus agree that Germanicus
[Gaius’s father] was not sent to Germany until the close of his consulship,
when Gaius was already born.”B198
What all of this shows
is that even though a Roman historian was a contemporary of a Roman figure, he
could still be liable to make a mistake while retelling the history of that
person and even misplace events historically as Suetonius’s correction of Pliny
shows. It has also been said of
Paterculus’s work that although he generally displayed “impartiality and love
of truth” it was a different case when it came to speak of Augustus and
Tiberius.R199 It is said that:
“Upon them [Augustus and Tiberius], and especially
upon the latter [Tiberius], he [Paterculus] lavishes the most indiscriminate
praises and fulsome [excessive] flattery. There is, however, some extenuation
[an acceptable “excuse”] for his conduct in the fact that Tiberius had been his
patron, and had advanced him to the honors he had enjoyed, and also from the
circumstance that it would have been dangerous for a writer at that time to
have expressed himself with frankness and sincerity.” [explanations supplied]B200
It may very well have
been this natural partiality towards Tiberius that led Paterculus to
conflate, or mistake, the event of Tiberius being hailed as Imperator in
11 or 12 A.D. with him officially receiving the hegemonia in
13 A.D. by the passing of a consular law. This “error” is all
the more possible when one considers that Paterculus wrote his Compendium about
20 years after this event had taken place.
A second way in which
this discrepancy could be resolved is that there is also the very likely
possibility that the statement of Paterculus has been "wrongly" read
or understood by modern-day historians, but not due to a fault of theirs, but
because of Paterculus’s at-times unorthodox "chronological" style. In
his writings Paterculus is often guilty of mentioning future events out of their
future context in anticipation. For example, B. Levick has pointed out
concerning Paterculus’s report about the scope of Tiberius’s military missions
in ca. 20 B.C. that they were:
“not as wide as Velleius [Paterculus] would have us believe.”B201
She then points out in a note that Velleius was anticipating here
Tiberius’s later position in the East.B202 So, in a would be
similar way, Paterculus, in retelling of Tiberius’s re-establishment of order
in Gaul, would have also mentioned at that time, but actually in anticipation,
the later event when Tiberius received the proconsular imperium from
the Senate which then gave him control over these province that he had now
preserved for the Rome.R203
However a third and
most convincing resolution of this apparent contradiction has been brought
forward by A. J. Woodman in his textually critical commentary of the Latin work
of Velleius Paterculus.B204 He says that:
“Velleius nowhere states when Tiberius actually
received the imperium; he merely implies that the voting of imperium
preceded the celebration of the triumph (senatus... decreto complexus est)
[‘the senate effected by decree that...’]. Since the triumph was almost
certainly celebrated in October A.D. 12, it follows that the senate’s decree
preceded that date. Suetonius does not contradict this, provided we assume that
his phrase ac non multo post [not long after this] refers not to lege
per consules lata [a law being passed] but to in Illyricum profectus est
[he set off for Illyricum]: ‘and not long after his triumph, a law having
<earlier> been passed that he should govern the provinces jointly with
Augustus, he set off for Illyricum”
So what Woodman is
showing here is that the original latin in Suetonius’ text fully allows for his
main emphasis to have been on ‘Tiberius setting off for Illyricum not long
after the celebration of his triumph,’ while he inserted in parenthetical
passing that ‘a consular law had already been passed earlier to all of this,
that gave Tiberius an Imperium equal to that of Augustus.’ So then both
Paterculus and Suetonius would have indicated that a consular law was passed
some time around, or after, Tiberius returned to Rome, but before he actually
celebrate his triumph = a ‘Germany, imperium, triumph’ order of events.
Now despite the fact that
Tiberius officially already had the Imperial power for a while before Augustus’s
death, he was still somewhat reluctant
to fully assume the title of
"Emperor," when the time came, but as Suetonius pointed out:
“Though Tiberius did not hesitate at once to assume and
to exercise the imperial authority, surrounding himself with a guard of
soldiers, that is, with the actual power and the outward sign of sovereignty,
yet he refused the title for a long time, with barefaced hypocrisy now
upbraiding [reproaching] his friends who urged him to accept it, saying that
they did not realize what a monster the empire was, and now by evasive answers
and calculating hesitancy keeping the senators in suspense when they implored
him to yield, and fell at his feet. Finally, some lost patience, and one man
cried out in the confusion: “Let him take it or leave it.” Another openly
voiced the taunt that others were slow in doing what they promised, but he was
slow to promise what he was already doing.”[explanation supplied].B205
Suetonius goes on to
say that Tiberius was not hesitant because he was not entitled to be the acting
Emperor at that time, but because he was in:
“fear of the
dangers which threatened him on every hand, and often led him to say that he
was ‘holding a wolf by the ears.’”B206
So based on all of
this, we can see that Tiberius Caesar was indeed Emperor as of 13 A.D. The question that still needs to be answered is: Was Luke reckoning
Tiberius’s Imperial years from that point.
However despite all of this
substantial/supporting evidence for a co-regency view here,
because:
(1) Josephus, in
another passage does make the statement that “the leadership
[hēgemonias] of the Romans was passed on to Tiberius upon
the death of Augustus;”B207
(2) As seen in some of
the examples cited, or referenced, above in subsection #8, a similar
formulation as the one that is found in Luke 3:1 to mention Tiberius’ regnal
year is also used for other Roman Emperors, especially by Josephus;
but, on the other hand,
as it been established that:
(1) Hēgemonias
refers specifically to the “authority” that, in this case, made someone
emperor;
(2) Tiberius’s co-regency
was a unique development, and “arranged” situation, in the early years of the
Imperial system in Rome;N208
(3) It is also
concretely seen from Roman History that Tiberius was officially given this
widely recognized “hēgemonias” in 13 A.D.,
it therefore now must
be determined if Luke himself had considered that Tiberius had the hēgemonias
in 13 or 14 A.D.?
Based on the evidence
of two coins from Antioch in Syria which officially recognized the Emperor
status of Tiberius in 13 A.D., and that this Syrian city of
Antioch was the actual city where Luke himself was fromN210
then this would greatly suggests that he also would have been quite familiar
with Tiberius’s promotion to Imperial power during Augustus’s last year and his
official recognition in 13 A.D. Also, since this co-regency
event was one that was pertinent to the Roman Empire, it then would have been
one that a Roman official like Theophilus would also have been quite familiar
with. It could also be that Theophilus at that time had been functioning as a
Roman official in Luke’s hometown, and therefore would further have no problem
in understanding such a reckoning
formula here.
Now if Luke's
chronological statement in Luke 3:1 is reckoned from the time of Tiberius’s
co-regency official start in early January 13 A.D., as this historical
study suggests, then the “fifteenth year of the authority of Tiberius”
falls between January, 27 A.D. to January 28 A.D. ; as the following table demonstrates:
#
--- Year # --- Year
1
- 13-14 A.D. 8
- 20-21 A.D.
2
- 14-15 A.D. 9
- 21-22 A.D.
3
- 15-16 A.D. 10
- 22-23 A.D.
4
- 16-17 A.D. 11
- 23-24 A.D.
5 - 17-18 A.D. 12 - 24-25 A.D.
6 - 18-19 A.D. 13 - 25-26 A.D.
7 - 19-20 A.D. 14 - 26-27 A.D.
15 - 27-28 A.D.
And, of course, if
Luke had been reckoning these years from 14 A.D. then Tiberius’
fifteenth year would have fallen in 28 as the following table demonstrates,
and, as mentioned earlier, would be officially reckoned from August 19, 28 A.D. to August 19, 29 A.D.
# --- Year # ---
Year
1
- 14-15 A.D. 8
- 21-22 A.D.
2
- 15-16 A.D. 9
- 22-23 A.D.
3
- 16-17 A.D. 10
- 23-24 A.D.
4
- 17-18 A.D. 11
- 24-25 A.D.
5 - 18-19 A.D. 12 - 25-26 A.D.
6 - 19-20 A.D. 13 - 26-27 A.D.
7 - 20-21 A.D. 14 - 27-28 A.D.
15 - 28-29 A.D.
Realistically, only an
outside, independent determinative dating can resolve this dilemma here and,
frankly, Providentially enough, when John wrote his Gospel years later, his
mention of a date for an event in Christ’s early ministry does provide this
determinative evidence. This is in relation to the event of Christ’s first
Passover visit mentioned in John 2.
The Date of Christ’s First
Passover Visit
In John 2:13-20, the
apostle John recorded the account of a pilgrimage trip that Jesus made to
Jerusalem in order to attend the Jewish feast of Passover. During this visit,
Jesus performed His first of two cleansing of the temple S211
and in the discussion that ensued between Jesus and the Jewish religious
leaders, He was asked by them to give them a sign that would validate the
authoritative actions that He had just taken. (Jn 2:18). Jesus answered them by referring to His
inherent superiority over the standing, but limited Jewish Temple by saying:
"Destroy
this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
To this strange
statement, the spiritually-blind Jews responded by alluding to a certain date
of 46 years that pertained to some aspect of the reconstruction of the Temple.
The exact meaning of
this chronological statement has been somewhat lost by the failure on the part
of translators to accurately translate this statement from the Greek. This is
probably due to the fact that the grammatically correct translation of this
phrase is actually not a very logical response by the Jews. So this has led
translators to render this statement as what the Jews probably meant to say;
but although these latter translations do make more sense, they are still
grammatically inaccurate here. It rightly is the translation that is grammatically
correct but that doesn’t seem to make any sense at all, that best brings out
the chronological significance and historical accuracy of this "46-year" statement.
The Jews’ response to
Jesus has traditionally been translated to basically mean either that: (1) ' it
had taken forty-six years to build the temple and that it was now completed' R212
or (2) that: 'the temple had been under construction for 46 years and it was
still under construction,' R213 but, as we have
already stated, neither of these translations are accurate.
The conjugated form of
the Greek verb for "to build," -oikondomēthē-, in this
statement is grammatically identified as an aorist indicative (passive).R214
As many Greek grammarians have emphasized, the Greek verbal tense system,
unlike the English’s system, do not indicate the time of an action, but
rather the “kind of action.”R215 These kinds of
actions are either: Durative, Undefined, and Perfective.
Grammarian Gerald L. Stevens has illustratedB216 these varying
aspects as follows:
1.
Durative [---------- or -
- - - - - ]
2.
Undefined [ ● ]
3.
Perfective [ - - - -➤ or ●- - -➤]
Of these three, the
Greek aorist tense fits into the category of an "undefined" actionR217
since it does not emphasize the details in the process or result of an action,
but mainly mentions that this action or event took place.R218
This undefined action could either take place in the past, present or
the future, and it is only in the indicative mood that the aorist tense could
also indicates past time.R219 This past time is grammatically indicated
by the use of, what is known as, an “augment.”R220 In the case of the verb oikondomēthē
in John 2:20, the opening double vowel (diphthong) -oi is “lengthened”
to the improper (i.e., contracted) diphthong- ōi ( ᾠR221). Its Greek spelling is
therefore changed from ‘oἰkodomhqh’ to ‘ᾠkodomhqh,’
as many (though not all) NT Greek manuscripts have it.R222 The omission of this visible augment in some NT manuscripts is
due to the fact that the rules of Greek Morphology (the rules governing the
forms of Greek words) allows for an opening diphthong not to be visibly
augmented.R223
Nevertheless, such an (aorist) indicative verb would still be indicating past
time whether it was visibly augment or not and the fact that most NT manuscripts
have the visible augment for the aorist indicative verb of John 2:20 strongly
suggests that was indeed indicating past
time.
Now since, as we have
seen, the aorist tense describes only a non-continuous action and not a durative
one then this verbal expression could not be indicating a building process
or an ongoing (“linear”) action stretching over a 46-year period. If that would
have been the intended meaning of this statement, then a durative type
of verb would have been used instead (i.e., either an imperfect or present
tense form of the verb ‘to build’) If a [past] imperfect tense had
been used, then this statement would literally have said:
If a present
tense have been used, it would have had a slight present perfect sense
in its translationR225 and would been expressed as:
‘This temple has been in building
for 46 years.’
Since an aorist
tense was used here instead of the imperfect or present tense,
then the most accurate translation of this statement should then be:
This would therefore
mean that at the time this statement was made by the Jewish leaders to Jesus,
the Jewish temple would had already stood built for 46 years.
Now there is another
key word, and also a clear historical allusion that corroborates this latter
accurate rendering of Christ’s statement and thus reveals exactly what the Jews
were referring to.
There are two words in
the Greek New Testament that are used to describe the two distinct and specific
areas of the Jewish "temple," namely naos and hieron. The distinction between these two words has
been lost in most English translations as both of these words have been
translated as "temple," but the first word, naos, actually
specifically referred to the actual sanctuary area; the Holy Place and
the Most Holy Place. This meaning of naos can be seen in passages like
Matt 27:51; Mark 15:38 and Luke 23:45 where it is used to identify the location
of the veil that was rent in two at the time of Christ's death. This is
obviously referring to the veil in the sanctuary that separated the Holy Place
from the Most Holy Place.S227 On the other hand, the Greek word hieron
was used to describe the area that surrounded the temple, (i.e., its “courtyard”
or “precinct”). Going out from the sanctuary this courtyard area was divided
into three distinct courts namely: the "Priest's Court," the
"Court of the Gentiles," and the "Court of the Women."R228 It was in this Temple precinct that Jesus
had found the people who were buying and selling temple goods (John 2:14, 15),
and it was in this same area that surrounded the sanctuary that Jesus
repeatedly taught the people N229 since this was an
area that was accessible to by the general public, while only the priests and Levites
could enter the naos (sanctuary).
In speaking of the "temple" in John
2:20, Jesus used the word naos to indicate that He was specifically
referring to the "sanctuary." The Jews fully understood that this is
what He was referring to as they also used this same word naos in their
reply (vs. 21). They just didn’t understand, as John pointed out later, that He
was figuratively referring to the "sanctuary" (naos) of His body.N230
Now it is from the
historical account of Jewish historian Flavius Josephus concerning this
Temple’s reconstruction that we
come to fully understand the chronological contribution that was made in the
reply of the Jews.
Josephus made four
statements that are key to the dating event of the reconstruction of this
sanctuary (naos). He first made the following two related statements in
his work: Antiquities of the Jews:
(1) “Now when Herod had already reigned seventeen
years, [Augustus] Caesar came into Syria . . . ”B231
(2) “And now Herod, in the eighteenth year of his
reign, and after the acts already mentioned, undertook a very great work, that is, to build of himself the Temple
of God at his own expense.”B232
If, as Josephus says,
Herod had already reigned seventeen years, (or: "gone forward," as
the Greek verb "proelthontos" literally means)
then it was in the eighteenth year of his reign that Augustus Caesar made this
Imperial trip to Syria.N233 This eighteenth year of Herod can be
dated concretely on the Julian Calender since this trip of Augustus to Syria is
alluded to in the writings of Roman historian Dio Cassius [54:7.4-6], and is
there said to have taken place “in the spring of the year when Marcus Apuleius
and Publius Silius were consuls.” Since M. Apuleius and P. Silius P. f. Nerva
were consuls in the year 20 B.C.,R234 then this is to be
the Julian date for this trip.
This corroborating date
of Dio Cassius is quite valuable here because of the existence of two possible
starting dates from which the years of Herod’s reign could have been reckoned
from. It (1) could have been reckoned from the time he was named King of
Jerusalem, which was in 40 B.C.,R235 or (2) from the
time when he actually took Jerusalem, which was three years later in 37 B.C.R236 But since the combination of Dio Cassius’s
and Josephus’s statements indicate that Augustus’s trip to Syria 'in 20 B.C.' was in the “eighteenth year” of Herod, then it is therefore evident
that Josephus had been reckoning, the years Herod’s reign from the time Herod took
Jerusalem in 37 B.C.N237
Now Herod’s original
plan for the temple reconstruction was that he would completely destroy the
existing Temple (the one which had been rebuilt after the Babylonian captivity)
and then rebuild the new one on the same site, and also on a much grandeur and
magnificent scale,R238 but because he realized that the Jews
would not agree to see their Temple structure completely leveled before another
one started to be rebuilt (due to the risk factor that it may not actually be
rebuilt at all and that they would be left without a temple) he therefore
offered to first gather all the necessary building materials for the new Temple
and then, and only then, would he destroy the existing Temple in order to begin
building the new one. The Jews had no problem with this reasonable offer, so
this is how Herod proceeded.R239
The exact date when
this work started can be determined, and this by a (chain-reference)
comparative analysis of a few statements in Josephus’s account. He, first of
all, pointed out that (1) the rebuilding of the "sanctuary"(naon)N240
was completed in “a year and six months”R241 and that (2) a great
celebration immediately followed this conclusion of the work in Jerusalem, and
that this celebration coincided with the anniversary date of Herod’s conquest of Jerusalem. This conquest
of Jerusalem by Herod can be concretely he dated because Josephus, in his
previous account of this event indicates by several statements that it took
place on what actually works out to be September 25 of 37 B.C.R242 However, due to the varying choices of months in 37 B.C. that have been adopted by some modern historians’ ("private")
interpretations of Josephus’s (“incorrect”) statements,R243
it would be beneficial to see in detail the clear and specific way in which
Josephus did accurately date this event.
He first says that
Herod’s conquest fell in the year “when Marcus Agrippa and Caninius Gallus were
consuls of Rome.” This consulate was in the year 37 B.C.N244 He then adds that
it was also “on the hundred eighty and fifth Olympiad.” The
"Olympiad" period were the four-year period that extended between the
Greek Olympic games, and the one that Josephus was referring to extended from
the years 40 B.C. to 36 B.C.R245 Then Josephus adds
that the month of the conquest was “the third month [of the Olympiad].” Since a
year in an Olympiad started on July 1 and end on June 30, then this “third month”
was the third month from the Olympiad’s beginning month of July. This “third
month” was the Julian month of September.N246 Finally Josephus said
that the city also fell on the day of “the
solemnity of the Fast,”N247 which was the “Day of Atonement,” which
is usually celebrated in late September/early October, (from on
at least September 25N248). Finally Josephus mentions that 27
years before Jerusalem had also falllen on this very same Feast Day to Pompey
and the Romans.R249 The year in which that prior fall
took place was 63 B.C.,R250 so, using
inclusive reckoning, these 27 years end in 37-36 B.C. as the following
table shows:
# ---
Year # --- Year # --- Year
1 - 63-62 B.C. 10 - 54-53 B.C. 19 - 45-44 B.C.
2 - 62-61 B.C. 11 - 53-52 B.C. 20 - 44-43 B.C.
3 - 61-60 B.C. 12 - 52-51 B.C. 21 - 43-42 B.C.
4 - 60-59 B.C. 13 - 51- 50 B.C. 22 - 42-41 B.C.
5 - 59-58 B.C. 14 - 50-49 B.C. 23 - 41-40 B.C.
6 - 58-57 B.C. 15 - 49-48 B.C. 24 - 40-39 B.C.
7 - 57-56 B.C. 16 - 48- 47 B.C. 25 - 39-38 B.C.
8 - 56-55 B.C. 17 - 47-46 B.C. 26 - 38-37 B.C.
9 - 55-54 B.C. 18 - 46-45 B.C. 27 - 37-36 B.C.
So according to this specific dating formula of Josephus, the date that Herod took Jerusalem was indeed on (at the least) September 25, 37 B.C.
Now based on the time
of “a year and a half” that Josephus said it took to rebuild the sanctuary (naos),
it can therefore be seen, by counting backwards from the date of (at least) late
September, that the rebuilding of the Temple had actually begun around late
March 25, and that in 20 B.C. N251 However since this
date of March 25 came just a few days before the Passover Day ceremony which
was on March 29,N252 and it is quite likely that the Jews
would not have their Temple be destroyed (just) before the important Passover
Feast, it is then very likely that Herod waited out these 4-5 days until after
the Feast Day (i.e., March 30) to begin the work.N253
Based on all of this
dating keys here a chronology of the ‘year and six month’ work would be as
follows:
ca. March
30, 20 B.C. - March 30, 19 B.C. - - - - - - - 1
year
March
30, 19 B.C. - September 25, 19 B.C. - - - - ca. 6 months
March 30, 20 B.C. - September 25, 19 B.C. = 1 yr
& 6 months
The rest of the work on
the buildings that would be raised in the ‘outer courts’ and ‘around the
sanctuary [in the "hieron"]’R254 was not going to
be completed until the year 62/63 A.D.R255
Since the study of O.
Edwards concerning the proper reckoning of Herod’s reignR256
has shown that it would be more accurately reckoned according to the Jewish
Civil calender which started in the Fall (September/October),N257
the from the time that Herod’s 18th regnal year would have begun
(ca. Oct 1, 21 B.C.) to the time when the
rebuilding work which he later proposed actually began (ca. Apr 9, 20 B.C.), he had had up to about six months to gather all the building
materials for the work as he had suggested.
So
now since it was to this rebuilt naos (sanctuary) that Jews in Jesus
time were referring to in their response to Christ, then they were therefore
counting its rebuilt years from its completion date of the Fall of 19 B.C. The naos (sanctuary) would have been considered to be “built”
from that time.
Grammarians and
commentators have usually classified the aorist verb in John
2:20,"built," as a Constantive Aorist,R258
since this syntactical classification is used to describe an aorist action as a
fact without any particular 'reference to its beginning, its end, its progress,
or its result,R259 but since a time period (46 years) was
specified for this building action which made an implicit reference to its
building date, and also since the result of this building action was
also being emphasized here, then this classification is not the most accurate
here.N260 Actually, in the light of what this building statement was
referring to, this aorist verb in John 2:20 would be more accurately
classified as a CulminativeE261Aorist, since
this aorist places a slight emphasis on the conclusion or the results of the
completed action (which is what the Jews were doing), and since it is also
often found in verbs who inherently signify effort or attempt or intention or
process, and also indicates the completion or attainment of these things.R262,
R263
This type of Aorist also comes close to having the meaning of a perfect
tense,R264 (i.e., an ongoing present result of a past
completed action, or more correctly a past completed processR265),
and is therefore best translated with the supplied word "has."
So based on all of these syntactical features, the Jews were indeed indicating
to Jesus was that: ‘the sanctuary "had been built" or
"had now stood built" for 46 years...and that He
now wanted to destroy it and rebuild it in an incredible three days!’N266
The traditional, yet
incorrect translation of the aorist verb -oikondomēthē- in John 2:20 in
most English Bible today as an ongoing "building" may have been
influenced by the English translation of the LXX version of Ezra 5:16. In that
passage, the verb oikondomēthē is also used in the context of a Temple
rebuilding and this verse has traditionally been translate to say:
“Then the same Sheshbazzar came and laid the
foundation of the house of God which is in Jerusalem; but from that time even
until now it has been under construction, and is not finished.”[i.e.s.]N267
The immediate context
of this verse seems to indicate that this aorist should be indicating an
ongoing action but, as we have seen, that would harmonize with the type of
action that the aorist tense represents,R268 which is again simply an
undefined action. So this action should also be expressed in the meaning
and translation of the verb oikodomēthē in Ezra 5:16 LXX. Now since this
Greek verb was a translation of the Aramaic (passive)R269
Hithpeel/Ithpeel participleR270 that is found
here in the Masoretic Text,N271 which, simply said, is a
verbal adjective, in the reflexive voice, that is used to indicates a
(somewhat forceful)N272 continuing state or action,R273
a Constantive notion could be argued for here, but it could actually be
better defended that this aorist verb was functioning as an Ingressive aorist
and was thus placing a special emphasis on the past enduring beginning
stages of this action. In this sense it would be emphasizing the idea that the
sanctuary had forcefully made itself to enter into a new (lasting) state
and condition (and not the process) of being built. Based
on this understanding, the translation of this verse would be:
‘Then the same Sheshbazzar came and laid the
foundation of the house of God which is in Jerusalem; but from that time even
until now it beganN274 to be built
and/but is not yet finished.’ [i.e.s]N275
Now, going back to the
John 2:20, the actual accurate translation of the Jews’ reply to Jesus there
which said that: ‘The sanctuary has been built for 46 years and you will raise
it up in three days?’ really makes their answer somewhat irrelevant and shallow
here, but it must be pointed out that they were not always known to respond in
a sound way to Jesus’s deep and figurative, and sometimes hard to grasp
statements,S276 especially when they could not see the
spiritual meaning in them.S277 This encounter with
Jesus in John 2:13-20 was their first exposure to His wisdom, His theology and
His teaching style,N278 and the somewhat ironic statement that
He made hereR279 probably caught them off
guard and caused them to respond in such an illogical way.N280
Notwithstanding, and actually, all things taking into consideration, most
likely here, this response of the Jews may actually make perfect sense if
it is also taken into consideration that ‘since this “hailed,” lasting, 46-year
old Temple was so “well built”, just destroying it would take much more
than 3 days, let alone its rebuilding.E281
It may also seem
strange at first that the Jews responded to Jesus by mentioning such an odd,
yet precise, date of the years the sanctuary had been rebuilt as they easily
could have instead said in a more general way that:
‘It has been over 40 years that this sanctuary
has been rebuilt and you will raise it up in three days!’
Yet their specific
answer showed here how they really took at heart this Temple. In fact, its
completion (= its inauguration) 46 years earlier had been greatly and ‘illustriously’
celebrated, (as it also coincided with the celebration of the king’s
inauguration),R282 thus addedly providing a quite
memorable, and annually commemorable, date. This then all would not make it a
surprise that any apparent comment made against this Temple would greatly
disturb these religious leaders, and it then is no surprise that this single
comment by Jesus would later be considered as a major accusation against Him at
the time of His final trial.S283
Now, with the correct
translation and understanding of John 2:20 having been established, we can now
see the full chronological contribution that this statement came to make in
regards to the date of Christ’s first Passover visit during His public
ministry. Since, as it has been calculated, the first year of the sanctuary being rebuilt was in the Jewish
7th month (Tishri), i.e., the year from September/October 19 B.C. to September/October 18 B.C., then the 46th year
of this rebuilding anniversary was the period that fell between
September/October 27 A.D. and September/October 28 A.D.,N284 as the following table demonstrates:
(September/October-to-September/October
Years)
# ---
Year # ---
Year # --- Year
1 - 19-18 B.C. 16 - 4-3 B.C. 31 - 12-13 A.D.
2 - 18-17 B.C. 17 - 3-2 B.C. 32 - 13-14 A.D.
3 - 17-16 B.C. 18 - 2-1 B.C. 33 - 14-15 A.D.
4 - 16-15 B.C. 19 - 1 B.C.-1 A.D. 34 - 15-16 A.D.
5 - 15-14 B.C. 20 - 1-2 A.D. 35 - 16-17 A.D.
6 - 14-13 B.C. 21 - 2-3 A.D. 36 - 17-18 A.D.
7 - 13-12 B.C. 22 - 3- 4 A.D. 37 - 18-19 A.D.
8 - 12-11 B.C. 23 - 4-5 A.D. 38 - 19-20 A.D.
9 - 11-10 B.C. 24 - 5-6 A.D. 39 - 20-21 A.D.
10 - 10-9 B.C. 25 - 6-7 A.D. 40 - 21-22 A.D.
10 - 10-9 B.C. 25 - 6-7 A.D. 40 - 21-22 A.D.
11 - 9-8 B.C. 26 - 7-8 A.D. 41 - 22-23 A.D.
12 - 8-7 B.C. 27 - 8-9 A.D. 42 - 23-24 A.D.
13 - 7-6 B.C. 28 - 9-10 A.D. 43 - 24-25 A.D.
14 - 6-5 B.C. 29 - 10-11 A.D. 44 - 25-26 A.D.
15 - 5-4 B.C. 30 - 11-12 A.D. 45 - 26-27 A.D.
46 - 27-28 A.D.
46 - 27-28 A.D.
So
the Passover, when the Jews made this comment to Jesus, the one that fell in
the 46th year of the Temple’s rebuilt anniversary, would have been
the Passover in the A.D. 28.N285
This date then concretely indicates that the baptism of Jesus had occurred in
27 A.D. and also that Luke had bee reckoning his date in Luke
3:1 for the co-regency of Tiberius Caesar back in 13 A.D.
This established
chronology also indicates that Christ’s baptism in the Jordan had
occurred, amazingly enough, exactly 483 years after the starting point
of Daniel’s Seventy Weeks in the year of
457 B.C., which would mean that the coming on the scene of
Jesus the "Messiah" and "King," at the end of the 69
prophetic weeks would have been accurately and timely fulfilled by Jesus
Christ, both theologically and chronologically!
With now the date of
Christ’s baptism, and His first Passover having been established
to ca. 27 and 28 A.D., respectively, what can now
be significant to determine is the approximate time of the year in 27 or
28 A.D. when Jesus was baptized. Based on the detailed
accounts in the gospel of John concerning the events in the early stages of
Christ’s ministry (John 1:19-2:25) leading up to His first Passover visit, we
can indeed fairly accurately determine this probable season.
The Time of the Year of Christ’s
Baptism
Based on the
established and accepted fact that a days "journey" in Biblical times
covered about 16-20 miles,R286 a day-by-day outline
of the itinerary of Christ’s early
ministry which is aided by the temporal markers in the Gospel of John (John
1:29a, 35a, 43a, 2:1a,12b)would have been as follows:
[See Map#2 for the sketch of these points (❶-❿) in this
itinerary]
➊Day 1 (John 1:19-28) -John the Baptist is
questioned by Jewish religious leaders
➋Day 2 (John 1:29-34) -John and Jesus meet for the
first time since the baptism
➍Day 4 (John 1:43-51) -Jesus calls Philip, who in
turn calls Nathanael; Jesus leaves for Galilee (John 1:43).
➐Day 16 (John 2:12a) -Jesus makes a 16-mile trip (1-day) from
Cana to Capernaum.
➑Day 17-19? (John 2:12b)-Jesus
and his disciples do not stay in Capernaum “many days”.
➒Day 20-25 (John 2:13) -Jesus makes a 75-mile
trip (4-5 days) from Capernaum to Jerusalem
for the Passover.
➓Day 25 (John 2:14) -Jesus arrives in Jerusalem
and cleanses the Temple.
This reconstructed
itinerary of Christ’s early ministry, would then mean that approximately or
better, at least, 25 days had elapsed between the account of the questioning of
John the Baptist in John 1:19-28 and the first Passover visit of Christ in (the
Spring of) 28 A.D.
Now the logical understanding here would be to defaultly assume that
John the gospel writer had begun this chronological account of Christ’s travels
immediately after Jesus had returned from His forty-day stay in the Wilderness
of Temptation since the gospels say that Jesus went to the wilderness of
temptation immediately after His baptism.S291, N292 Based on such a
sequitur, default assumption, if these 40 days were indeed attached to
this minimum of 25 days, it would then mean that at least 65 days that had
elapsed from the baptism of Christ to His first Passover visit in the Spring of
28 A.D. Now since this Passover probably occurred sometime
around the middle of March to the middle of April, this would then mean that
Jesus had been baptized about in early January to early February 28 A.D. (about 9 weeks before).
The prophecy then indicates that at the end of, what works out to be,
483 years, a certain “Messiah, Prince/(sub-)Ruler” will make his appearance on
the scene. This identity of the Messiah is clearly and rightfully assumed by
Jesus Christ, and it is only publicly declared/revealed by Him after His
baptism by John the Baptist in the Jordan River. (See also Luke 1:32; John
18:37). From the precise, uninterruptible chronology of the prophecy, which
precisely began in the 7th Jewish month (i.e., Sep/Oct) of 457 B.C.,
the end of this 483-year period is to take place in Sep/Oct of the year 27 A.D.
Then sometime after that chronological period’s ending, the Messiah is to make
His official (public) appearance on the scene, as such.
The date for the
baptism of Jesus and the start of His public ministry is conclusively/most
objectively anchoredly indicated from by the date of the Passover revealed in
John 2:20 which, when accurately translated (actually non-sequiturly), says (by
the quasi-flummoxed Jewish leaders): “This sanctuary has stood built for
46 years...!!?”, is conclusively reckoned to be in the Spring of the year 28
A.D.
Then from the
chronological data given early in the gospels of Luke and John, it can be
further specifically determined that the Baptism of Christ had priorly taken
place, actually, around the middle of that winter, earlier in that 28 A.D. year
-[contra e.g., GC 327.1's ‘autumn
baptism’], some ca. “2 months” (DA 144.3-145.1)/65 days (= 40
(Matt 4:1|DA 109.1ff, 114.1-2) + ca. 25 (John 1:29ff|DA 136.4-137.1ff))
leading up to that first ministering Passover visit (John 2:13ff).
Further corroborating
evidence about the exact year of Christ’s baptism is then seen in Luke 3:1.
-Contrary to a popularized erroneous claim293, that specific year is
not revealed by a convergence of the several reigns cited in Luke 3:1-2, for
that convergence factually merely produces a wide range of years of:
27-33/34 A.D. Rather the precise year is obtained from the fact that it was
also during the said “15th year of the authority of Tiberius.”
(Luke 3:1) That is because the Greek term used in this verse to speak of the “authority”
of Tiberius is not to be used and understood interchangeably with the term for “reign”
as it is commonly done in Bible translations. An in depth study of the use of
this word in the 630+ times that it occurs in other Greek works, clearly
reveals that it has a specific meaning of referring to the “authority” or “power”
that someone, or some entity, has in order to reign or have the supremacy
and/or dominion. As such it is also a “power” that can be shared by two or more
individuals or entities. Therefore, based on the documented history of Tiberius’s
accession and reign as emperor, the beginning of this 15 year
reckoning is from the time when Tiberius Caesar was made a co-emperor, and that
by Consular law, by his adoptive father Emperor Augustus Caesar. However while
that Consular Law was proposed and passed in the Senate sometime around October
23 of A.D. 12, it apparently was not formally put into effect until Tiberius’s
actual return to Rome a little after the Roman’s New Year’s Day of January 13
A.D. So Tiberius’ ensuing 15th year therefore was from (some date
in) January 27 A.D. to January 28 A.D. And it is towards the very end of that
15th year period, that Jesus was baptized.
(As the reference in
Luke 3:23 to Christ’s approximate age is often, but falsely, used to try
to determine the year of the beginning of Christ’s ministry, see this pertinent post on the actual year of
Christ’s birth).
Now, succinctly stated:
the manifest reconciling fact here between this more Biblically and objectively
proven date of January 28 A.D. for Christ’s baptism and the prophetic
chronological indicator in Dan 9:25 for an (exact) arrival on the scene of the
Messiah 483 years after the start of the prophecy, thus in the Fall of October
27 AD. is in how closely the “forerunning” ministry of John the Baptist was “symbiotically”
linked to that of the Messiah (e.g. Matt 17:10-13). In fact John the Baptist himself
clearly states that ‘the whole reason/purpose of his ministry and his baptizing
was so that the Messiah would be revealed to Israel’ (John 1:31, 33 =DA
109.3-110.1). And so, it appears that John began his ministry by first going on
an extensive, itinerant preaching tour (Matt 3:1-4) and “then” (Matt 3:5a) he
settled near Bethany to do baptisms, and it is then that the people who had
heard his prior preaching went out to him to be baptized....and it was at that
time, when also these tidings of John ministry had reached the region where
Jesus lived ca. 75 miles away from Jerusalem/Judea in the Galilee region (Matt
2:19-23), that Jesus, and others in the region, traveled to where John was
ministering. (DA 109.1). So, given the fact that John’s ministry did not
involve miraculous signs (John 10:41; cf. 4:1), it probably took a while for
his, thus “simple”, message to spread throughout Israel. Furthermore, it is
evident that John ministry was started a long while before Jesus came on the
scene at all as John had had time to assemble many “disciples”, some of which
would immediately leave him to follow after Jesus upon John’s endorsement of
Him (John 1:35-37; DA 138.4-5ff). And quite interestingly, in Luke 3:21, Luke
uses very specific/deliberate (Greek) expression to (literally/accurately) say:
“As a result of every-[only repenting]-one (Gk. apanta) being baptize
(Gk. (aorist) infinitive (=main verb)), Jesus also was being baptized (Gk.
passive (dependent) aorist participle-(of result/end)”, all strongly indicating
that Jesus going out to John to be baptized was pointedly greatly dependent on
when everyone else was being baptized.
So it is manifest that
John had begun his “forerunning” ministry for a while before Jesus, and at
first mainly as an itinerant preacher, and then John entered a non-itinerant
phase of baptizing, and it is then that people now left there homes/locations
to go out to him instead, and it is at that time that Jesus also did the same.
So it pointedly was John’s (secondary) baptizing ministry which served as a “sign”
to Jesus (See DA 109.1, cf. 109.3b).
Thus it is quite
possible that John had begun, at God’s indication, preaching in October
27 AD., and then, perhaps distinctly, at God’s indication (John 1:33), began
baptizing around January 28 AD, and ‘as a result’ of this news of, pointedly,
this call to ‘go and be baptized by John’ also reached Nazareth, that Jesus
then joined the flocking crowds to also be baptized, and was thus officially
revealed as the Messiah. So it would be John’s Messiah-seeming (Luke 3:15ff;
John 1:19-20ff) preaching start itself, in possibly October 27 AD, when he
actually straightly announced the soon arrival of the (superior) Messiah (John
1:26-28, 30-31; Luke 3:16-17) which had
timely fulfilled the prophetic chronological element in Dan 9:25. Then Jesus
merely seamlessly complemented, and continued this Messianic Advent.[4]294 Also, the allegorical,
and timed, ‘repent or likewise perish’ (Luke 13:1-5) parable of Christ in Luke
13:6-9 (cf. Matt 21:18-19ff), told in the third (cf. John 7:2) and final year
of Christ’s public ministry, shows that the (manifestly) 3.5, (inclusively
reckoned: 4), years of ministry by John the Baptist and Jesus were indeed
seamlessly, consecutively, conjoined. (Luke 3:8-9, 15-17; Matt 3:1-2||Mark
1:14-15 cf. Matt 17:10-13).
“About 30 Years of Age”
When the probable age
of Jesus at the time His baptism is taken into consideration here with the year
of His baptism sometime in January 28 A.D., a very
interesting conclusion can be made in regards to Jesus’s awareness of the
Messianic prophecy of the Seventy Weeks.
It has traditionally
been believed that Jesus was waiting to be of the "legal" age of 30
to begin His ministry because of the stipulation in Num 4:3 concerning Levites
entering the Temple service, but a closer look at the implementation of this
"legal age" over the years reveals that this may not necessarily have
been the reason. First of all, this traditional conclusion is primarily based
on the syntactically inaccurate translations of Luke 3:23 by some English
versions which say that Jesus "began to be about thirty years of age"
at the time of His baptism,R295 but based on an accurate
rendering of the Greek text here, what Luke had actually said here, after he
had written about the beginning of John the Baptist’s ministry, was that “Jesus
Himself was about 30 years of age when He began [His ministry].”R296
I. Howard Marshall has pointed out that Luke's use of the expression hōsei
“about” is a clear indication that this age of 30 was not the exact age of
Christ at the time of His baptism, but rather an approximation,B297
and in addition to this, Luke’s “about” statement is expressed here in one of
two possible ways for a number approximation in Greek can be expressed as
either hōs or hōsei. The difference between the two is that, with
numerals, the hōsei expression, which has the particle of conditionality
“ei” (= “if”) attached at its end, indicates an even more general
approximation than the expression hōsR298 So Luke actually
wasn’t sure about Jesus’ exact age at that time and rather gave a
"ballpark" figure which was saying that: ‘Jesus was in His thirties
when He began His ministry.’
Now when it is also
taken into consideration here that: (1) Jesus may have been born as early as 8 B.C.,R299 which would mean that He would have been
about 34N300 years of age at the time of His baptism
in 28 A.D.; (2) the age of 30 for entering the temple service mentioned in Num 4:3
was actually first lowered by God Himself through Moses to 25 (Num 8:23, 24),
and then it was established at 20 later on by a last act of King David (1 Chr
23:24, 27) as the work of moving around the tabernacle and its utensils was no
longer needed with a then fixed Temple (vs. 26), and that it was this lowered
age of 20 that was followed after the time of the Second Temple period (Ezra
3:8); and also that (3) these ages of 30, 25 and 20 were only a minimum requirement
and anyone from these ages up to fifty could enter the Temple service;S301
it then becomes apparent that Jesus was really not waiting until He was
actually thirty to begin His ministry, but that instead He seemed to have been
waiting for His “(appointed) time.”N302
This can be seen by the
fact that, at the youthful age of twelve, Jesus anxiously wanted to start His
ministry as soon as He became aware of what “His Father's business” was all
about and what He had to do (Luke 2:49). Yet after listening to His parents and
going back home with them after this
Passover visit (Luke 2:51), He then waited about 22 years before actually
beginning His ministry. Since, as we have mentioned earlier, Jesus may have
been born as early as 8 B.C.,R303 He then could
have theoretically begun His ministry 8 years after His temple visit (in what
would be 12 A.D.) since He would then have been twenty years old, or
He could have begun13 years after this visit (in what would be 17 A.D.) when He would have been twenty-five. But instead He waited until 28 A.D., when He would then be 34 years old.N304
Also when one takes
into consideration that (1) these “legal ages”of 20, 25 or 30 for Levites entering
the service may not have been binding on Jesus at all in the first place since
He was not a Levite from the tribe of “Levi”
but rather a Nazarene from the tribe of Judah (Heb 7:11-17;N305
cf. Gen 49:8-10; Matt 1:3; 2:6; Rev 5:5); and also that (2) He technically was
not entering the Jewish Temple service; the question must then be asked: What
then caused the then youthful and anxious Jesus to instead wait about 22 years,
to begin His public ministry? It now becomes almost self-evident that Jesus had
actually been waiting for His Messianic appointed “time,” i.e, the Messianic “time”
of Daniel’s Seventy Week prophecy. It could also be suggested here that the
youthful Jesus, at the age of twelve, may not have yet studied and/or
understood the Messianic time-prophecy in Daniel, but that after His Temple
visit, He would have come to understand it and see that He had to wait for the
69 weeks of Dan 9:25 to fully elapse before officially making His public appearance
and ministry as the Messiah.N306
This conclusion is
further supported by the fact that early in His public ministry, Jesus, after
He had completed an extended ministry in the area of Judea right after His
first Passover visit in 28 A.D. (John 2:13; 3:22), He returned
to His hometown of Galilee (John 4:1-3[4]) and began a ministry there (see John
4:43-47a, 54; cf. Matt 4:12-16; Mark 1:14; Luke 4:14-16ff). At that time, upon
entering into Galilee, He specifically said:
“The (set/appointed) time [Gk.-kairos]N307 has been
fulfilled,N308 and the kingdom of God is at hand....” Mark
1:15.
The perfect tense that
the verb “fulfilled” was expressed in here is a Greek tense that “is used with
special significance by an author[/speaker].”B309 As we have
briefly stated earlier, it is a tense that specifically denotes an action, or
more correctly a process,R310 that took place in the
past, the result of which have continued to the present.R311
This perfect tense is more specifically a Intensive/Resultative Perfect here
as the emphasis here is more on the past completed action/process;R312
which would in this case be the fulfillment long chronological time period of
the Seventy Weeks concerning the coming on the scene of the Messiah (the 69
prophetic weeks). This is because, this prophecy is the only Messianic prophecy
that had a specific time element in it then Jesus was no doubt referring
specifically to this Messianic set/appointed “time” here. So in summary, Jesus
was actually saying here, with particular emphasis, that the set/appointed time
of the Messiah, had been fulfilled (back in 27 A.D.) and the “present
continuing state” of this past fulfillment was being revealed in the public
ministry that He had since then been carrying out. (see in Luke 4:14-21). The
kingdom of God was indeed at hand because since that time He had been
performing mighty, redemptive acts and miracles (cf. Matt 12:28).N313
So it does indeed seems
that Jesus made a particular, though implicit, appeal to the Seventy Week
prophecy here and this was apparently because He was now returning to His
hometown of Galilee, where He had spent 30+ years of His life after his return
from Egypt (cf. Matt 2:22, 23). He knew, that the people there would not
believe in Him because their familiarity with Him would prevent them from fully
having faith and Him and the great works that He had now been empowered from on
High to do. (See Matt 13:54-58; Mark 6:1-6). As He had said:
‘A prophet has no honor in his own country,
among his own relatives and in his own house’ (see Matt 13:57, Mark 6:4; Luke
4:24 and John 4:44; Cf. Matt 21:11).N314
That is why He was only able to do some
'minor' miracles in his hometown (Mark 6:5) since His healing of people greatly
depended on the faith they had in Him (see e.g., Matt 9:22, 29; 15:28; Mark
5:35-43; cf. Matt 17:20; Mark 9:23, 24; John 11:23-27). So here Jesus had made
a direct appeal to the fulfilled set/appointed time of the Seventy Week
prophecy as He was returning to Galilee in order to indicate the reason why He
was now going about doing the works that He was doing and asking His hometown
folks to have faith in Him. The witness of this fulfilled appointed time would
help them understand why He had not
previously made such claims, and such a requirement (cf. Mark 6:6b) during the
30+ years that He had lived among them. This fulfilled prophecy would indeed
help to break down the wall of prejudice that they had against Him -the
hometown Returnee. As the late Christian singer Keith Green sang concerning
this attitude of unbelief towards Jesus by the people in Nazareth and
Galilee:
“What! You must be kidding!
He thinks he’s a prophet!?!
But prophets don’t grow up
from little boys,
[cf. Mark 3:21; 6:3; John
7:5].
Now with this incident
showing that Jesus was indeed a close follower of the Messianic prophecy in Dan
9 (for obvious reasons), it then seems that the appointed “time” or “hour”
statements made by Jesus in reference to the set times in His public ministry
(Matt 26:18, 45; Luke 22:53; John 2:4; 7:6, 8, 30; 8:20; 11:7-9; 12:23, 27;
13:1) were actually references to the prophetic "time" of Daniel’s
Seventy Weeks.N316
With now the coming of māšîah
nāgîd having been precisely fulfilled historically by the
timely baptism of Christ in the Fall of 27 A.D., we can now turn
to Dan 9:26 to examine the events that were prophesied to take place “after the
sixty-two weeks;” i.e., after 27 A.D.
Notes to "māšîah nāgîd"
2. Israel Yeivin, Introduction to the Tiberian Masorah, ed. and trans. E. J. Revell (Masoretic Studies 5; Missoula: Scholars Press, 1980), 158. See also Emmanuel Tov, Textual Criticism of the Hebrew Bible (Minneapolis, MN: Fortress Press, 1992), 68, who also make a similar comment.
4. Williams Wickes, Two Treatises on the
Accentuation of the Old Testament: On Psalms, Proverbs, and Job; On the
Twenty-one Prose Books, proleg. A. Dotan (New York: Ktav, 1970, originally
1881, 1887).
8. Other
examples of this emphatic function of the athnach are seen in Gen 1:21;
4:15; 41:47; Exod 25:22; Deut 28:32.
9. Cf. Owusu-Antwi, 189. See also Gen 34:7; 35:9,
21; 41:53; Exod 12:23; 24:4; Num 20:13; 28:26; 1 Sam 14:27; Isa 27:13; Dan 9:2.
20. For a list of the Hebrew terms for the English
preposition "for," see The Englishman's Hebrew and Chaldee
Concordance of the OT, "for," vol. 2. 2nd ed. rev. (London: Walton and
Marberly, 1860), 1534.
23. Cf. also Roger T. Beckwith, "Daniel 9 and the Date of Messiah’s Coming..." RevQ
10 (1980): 521-542.
25. Cf. Archer "Daniel," 113; Boutflower,
186; Philip Mauro, The Seventy Weeks and the Great Tribulation (Swengel,
PA: Bible Truth Depot, 1944), 101; E. B. Pusey, Daniel the Prophet (New
York: Funk & Wagnalls, 1885), 191.
27. During this “sabbath
year” the land was to lie fallow and be left uncultivated. There were also
socio-economic purposes included in these sabbaths in the sabbatical cycle.
See Exod 23:10, 11; Duet 15.
28. See the chart of B. Zuckermann in Treatise on
the Sabbatical Cycle and the Jubilee. Translated by. A. Löwy (New York:
Hermon Press, 1974), 60. As we will also
later see two other key years in the overall chronology of the Seventy Week
prophecy, 27 A.D. and 34 A.D., were all also dates of the sabbatical cycle of sabbatical years.
[Ibid., 61; cf. Ben Zion Wacholder, Chronomessianism: "The
Timing of Messianic Movements and the Calender of Sabbatical Cycles," HUCA
46 (1975), 218; idem.,"The Calender of Sabbatical Cycles during
the Second Temple and the Early Rabbinic Period," HUCA (1973), 185,
190].
Despite the mention of the Jubilee
celebration in connection with the sabbatical-year cycle of Lev 25:8, this
sabbatical year cycle cannot be used to calculate the years when the Jubilee
was celebrated because of the lack of historical data concerning the years in
which this feast fell in and because of the uncertainty, in both Jewish and
Christian scholarly circles, as to when the Jubilee was celebrated. Some say it
was in the year after the 49 years of the sabbatical cycle, others says
that it was on this 49th year, while others say that it was
in both years. For a discussion on these different theories see
Zuckermann, “Treatise.”
31. HAL, 609; KBL, 574; BDB,
603; GCHL, 516; Klein, 390; Seybold, "māšah," TWAT,
5:48; Soggin, "mælek, König," THAT, 1:913;
Victor P. Hamilton, "māshah," TWOT, 1:530; cf.
Owusu-Antwi, 161-163.
33. Cf. Marinus de Jonge, "Messiah," Anchor
Bible Dictionary. Edited by David
Noel Freedman (New York: Doubleday, 1992), 4:779.
39. See e.g., 1 Sam 9:16; 2 Sam 5:2; 6:21; 1 Kgs
14:7; 16:2; 2 Kgs 20:5; 1 Chr 11:2; 17:7; 12:27; 28:4; 29:22; etc.
43. Cf. Seow, 72; Moses Stuart, 282; Waltke
and O’Connor, IBHS, 258 [14.3.1a]; Williams, 16. Stuart (282) also adds that: “In its
present position, moreover, standing after [the preposition] ⊂ad, it cannot be a
predicate, for it could be only in case ⊂ad were omitted, and
then the assertion might be: Anointed [is] a prince.”
45. Clyde T. Francisco, "The Seventy Weeks of Daniel"
RevExp 57 (1960): 136; Ronald W. Pierce, "Spiritual Failure,
Postponement, and Daniel 9," Trinity Journal 10 (1989): 217; Thomas
E. McComiskey, "The Seventy 'Weeks' of Daniel against the Background of
Near Eastern Literature." WTJ 47
(1985): 28, 29; Michael J. Gruenthaner, "The Seventy Weeks." CBQ 1
(1939): 48.
47. E.g., Karl
Marti, Das Buch Daniel.* Kurzer Hand-Commentar zum Alten Testament,* 18
(Yubingen: J.C.B Mohr [Paul Siebeck], 1901), 69; Hartman and Di Lella, 251;
Lacocque, 195; Porteous, 142; E.W. Heaton, The Book of Daniel. Torch Bible Commentaries (London: SCM Press,
1956), 213; Towner, 143; A.A. Bevan, A Short Commentary on the Book of
Daniel (Cambridge: The University Press, 1892), 156; Montgomery, 379.
54. See also
Matt 24:5, 23 were Jesus uses this title of christos to warn against
people who would come claiming to be the "Messiah."
56. It also
was this similar belief that the prophesied Messiah would be a King that caused
the Jews to be so reluctant to believe that the simple-looking, and humble
Jesus was the Promised Great and Ultimate King of Israel (cf. Isa 53:1-4).
58. It is interesting to note that the Jews were
primarily interested to know if Jesus was the Messiah, for religious reasons of
course, while Pilate wanted to know if Jesus was a King due to the political
implications that this would have (cf. Acts 17:7).
59. It must be kept in mind that there actually was
no "year zero" and that we went from 1 B.C. to 1 A.D. on the historical time-line
or else this time period would end in the year 26 A.D.
60 Saul (1 Sam 9:16), David (1 Sam 16:12; 2 Sam 2:4;
5:3), [Absalom (2 Sam 19:10)]; Solomon (1 Kgs 1:34), and Hazael of Syria (1 Kgs
19:15); Jehu (2 Kgs 9:2, 3); Jehoahaz (2 Kgs 23:30); cf. Jud 9:8, 15.
65. Kilian McDonnell, The Baptism of Jesus in the
Jordan (Collegeville, MN: The Liturgical Press, 1996), 111.
66 Interestingly enough, Jesus Christ simultaneously
occupied the office of Prophet, Priest (cf. e.g., Heb. 7, 8) and King, all
three requiring Him to be Anointed before public ministry. (Cf. Heb 1:9 = Psa 45:6, 7).
67. Later on, we
will be able to specify the most probable time and season of the year when it
could have taken place.
68. This native
land of Luke is based on the testimony of Church Father Eusebius (Historia
Ecclesiastica,* 3:4.6) who claims that Luke was “by race an
Antiochan.” Antioch was an important city in the province of Syria. [See Map#3 for location].
69. This is an official title that Luke later also
uses in the book of Acts to refer to Roman procurators (governors) like
(Marcus) Felix (Acts 23:26; 24:3); and (Porcius) Festus (Acts 26:25). [Cf.
Matthew Bunson, "Marcus Antonius Felix," & "Porcius
Festus," Encyclopedia of Roman Empire, 155].
Also the fact that Luke doesn’t
address this same Roman official Theophilus as “Most Excellent” in Acts as he
had done in the Gospel account (comp. Luke 1:3 and Acts 1:1) has led some to
conclude that by this time Theophilus may have converted to Christianity and
may have thus lost his position in the Roman Empire. This conclusion can be
supported syntactically since Luke uses an “emotional address” vocative when he
says: “O Theophilus!” Jesus uses this same “emotional address” when a Canaanite
woman had made a faithful and insightful response to His testing statement: “It
is not good to take children’s bread and throw it to the puppies.” She
responded by saying: “Yes, Lord! For even the puppies feed on the crumbs
falling from their masters table.” This pleased Jesus and he responded by
saying: “O woman, your faith is great; be it done for you as you wish.”
[u.e.s.] (see Matt 15:21-28). In a similar way Luke may have been
quite surprised, emotional, and pleased by Theophilus’s ready response to the
Gospel message; and he now sent him (through the work on the ‘Acts of the
Apostles’) an account of the rise, deeds and progress of this new Church that
Theophilus would now have joined.
(The classification of this vocative
preceded by “O” as an emphatic address is contra N. Turner (33 note (c))
who claims that Acts is “the only NT book where [“O”] cannot be said to
involve some emotion”; and also contra D. B. Wallace, (69) who claims
the same thing, and also adds that this “O” is unemphatic because it is in
mid-sentence).
70. Some choose to
believe that the reference to Theophilus here is not literal but actually a
general name meaning: "friend of God," (from the combination of: Theos-
‘God’ and philos- ‘friend
of’), which Luke used to refer to Christians in general, but this is a theory
that really has roots in attempts to undermine the literalness and thus
truthfulness of the Gospel accounts. The writings of Josephus shows that the name
"Theophilus" was one that was used for literal people -even Jewish
figures. (See Antiquities of the Jews 18:5.3 [#123] & 19:6.2
[#297]).
71. Contra. SDABC
5:247n11 which posits that because Luke had based his account from Palestinian
Jewish sources/testimony (Luke 1:2), even Mary the mother of Jesus for the
account of Luke 2, as well as the Twelve disciples. Despite this probability
for his sources, Luke still could, and most likely would, have “translated/reworded”
terms and reckoning methods that were exclusive to the Jews for his Roman
Official recipient here.
73. See Mark’s translation of Aramaic words and
expressions in 5:41; 7:11; (13:14); 15:34; and his explanation of Jewish feasts
such as Passover (14:12) and the custom of the Pharisees (7:3, 4); and also his
giving of the Roman equivalent of a Palestine coin (12:42).
74. Believing that
Luke was using the Jewish reckoning system to relate the date of Christ’s
baptism to the Roman Official Theophilus, indeed vs. the many other
possibilities, would be as odd and highly unlikely as a Canadian Christian
today trying to relate the birth year of Israel’s first prime minister David
Ben-Gurion (October 16, 1886) to a American State Governor friend of his as
Tishrei 17, 5647, i.e., according to the current Jewish dating system.
76. See Dio
Cassius, Roman History, 56:29.6; 30.5; Paterculus, Compendium of
Roman History, 2.123.2; Suetonius, The Deified Augustus, 99C.
77. Cf. H. Stuart Jones, and Hugh Last. "The
Early Republic," CAH, Vol. 7. Edited by S. A. Cook, F. E. Adcock,
and M. P. Charlesworth (Cambridge: The University Press, 1928), 437; Jack
Finegan, Handbook of Biblical Chronology (Princeton, NJ: Princeton
University Press, 1998), 87 [#172].
78. See examples of this dating formula in e.g., Dio
Cassius, Roman History, 54:7.4; 56:29.2; 58:17.1; 20.5; Paterculus, Compendium,
2:123.2; Suetonius, The Deified Augustus 99C; Gaius Caligula,
4.8.1; among others.
79. Based on Theodor Mommsen, ed. Chronica Minora,*
Vol. 1. SAEC 4-7 (Berolini: APVD Weimannus, 1892), 219, 220; cf.
Ibid., 280, 281; Finegan, 84 [#179].
80. The Greek term
“hēgemoneuontos” which is used
here to describe Pilate’s official function specifically referred to the more
militarily-base office of a “Prefect” (as it will be seen in greater detail
later), but it has traditionally been assumed that Pilate was a “Procurator.”
A stone inscription discovered in 1961 in the Roman theater of Caesarea and which
had originally been set up by Pontius Pilate in Caesarea during his rule in
Judea, has come to settle this question as it showed that Pilate himself
described his office as a “Prefect.”
It reads as:
Pilate Inscription (Replica) |
TIBERIEVM
-(A building in honor of Tiberius)
PON]TIVS
PILATVS -(Pontius Pilate)
PRAEF]ECTVS
IVDA[EA]E ... -(Prefect of Judea)
Nevertheless even as a prefect, Pilate could still be
considered as a procurator since the “Prefect” was also entitled to perform the
financial functions of a “procurator,” and thus also assumed that title. [See
B. Levick, Claudius, (New Haven and London: Yale University Press,
1990), 48]. (For further discussion on the Pilate inscription see: Emil Schürer,
The History of the Jewish People in the age of Jesus Christ. New English
Edition. Rev. and ed. G. Vermes and F. Millar. 3 vols (Edingburgh: T&T
Clark, 1973-87), 1:358 note 22; and John J. Rousseau and Rami Arav, Jesus
& His World (Minneapolis, MN: Fortress Press, 1995), 225-227).
81. Traditionally
the date of Pilate’s rule has been dated from 26-36 A.D., but based on the
specific testimony of Josephus (Ant., 18:4.2 [#89]), this “ten-year”
rule has to be dated from early 27 to early 37 A.D. as he says there that: “Pilate, having spent ten years in Judea, hurried
to Rome in obedience to the orders of Vitellius, since he could not refused.” (Pilate
was being sent to Rome by his superior L. Vitellius, the legate (president) of
Syria, in order to stand trial for his lawless crimes against the Samaritans
(Ibid., 18:4.1, 2 [#85-#88]). Since Josephus also adds that before
Pilate could get to Rome, Tiberius passed away (March 16, 37 A.D.) (Suetonius, Tiberius, 3:73.1), then Pilate had left for Rome
some time around late February or early March in 37 A.D. If backdate Pilate’s “ten years”
from this date, then his arrival in Judea was sometime around late February or
early March in 27 A.D. (Cf. K. F. Doig, New Testament Chronology
(San Francisco, CA: EMText, 1992), 165-176).
82. An “tetrarch”
was the title for a ‘ruler of a quarter.’ [Greek= tetras (“four”) + archēs (“chief rule”),
cf. The Analytical Greek Lexicon, (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan,
1975), 116: “tetrarchēs”. Since the tetrarch was “one of a sovereign body of
four” (Ibid.), then this probably explains why Luke mentions four key
political “quarters” (ruled over by three tetrarchs) of the Palestine area, in
this dating section, namely:
1. Galilee -Herod
2. Iturea- Philip
3. Trachonitis- Philip
4. Abilene- Lysanias
(Also, an “ethnarch” was a ‘chief ruler of
a nation.’ [Gk.= ethnos (“nation”) + archēs (“chief rule”), cf. Ibid.,
402: “ethnarchēs.”)
85. The fact that
Luke mentions the High Priest Annas with Caiaphas here has puzzled NT scholars
since Josephus says that Annas was deposed as High Priest by the predecessor of
Pontius Pilate -Valerius Gratus- sometime after Tiberius had become emperor
[See Ant. 18:2.2 (#33, #34)]. Since this deposition took place about ten
years before the ministry of John the Baptist, it then is strange that Annas is
mentioned at all here, but in reading through the Gospel accounts it is very
clear that this same Annas had quite an influential, and apparently official,
High-priest role during the time of the ministry of Christ and beyond. (See
John 18:13, 24: Acts 4:6). What apparently happened here is that when Pilate
succeeded Valerius Gratus 11 years later (Ibid., 18:2.2 [#35]), Annas
was reinstated as High Priest and served in that office together with Caiaphas.
This is also probably why Luke refers to their joint high priesthood in the singular.
86. Roman
historian Tacitus says that by the first century A.D. Rome “was also no longer ruled by kings,” (Tacitus, Annals, 1.1)
as it had become a Republic that was ruled by Emperors, (Arnold, 51
- Cf. Strabo, Geography, 6.4.2 who says that “After the founding of
Rome, the Romans wisely continued for many generations under the rule of kings.
Afterwards, because the last Tarquinius was a bad ruler, they ejected him,
framed a government which was a mixture of monarchy and aristocracy,”).
Therefore along these
line W. T. Arnold points out that although the phrase that describes an
Emperors’ term in office as a "reign" is too convenient to be
dropped, it is of course, strictly speaking, inexact (Ibid., 46 note 3).
The specific Greek work for “reign” is basileias
and is strictly reserved for kings. E.g., in texts of Appendix D #96; #213;
#480.
91. This grouping
is not straightly based on how the term hēgemonia has been translated in these
English translations of these texts, but by how they have been determined to be
specifically functioning/meaning with their larger context in mind. As this
categorization here is arguable, it is therefore qualified as being “loose.”
107. Numbers in
square brackets [#] = Appendix D reference numbers of the contextual Greek and
English texts. Underlined words = the translation of hēgemonias.
123. G.W.H. Lampe, ed., "hēgemonia," A Patristic Greek
Lexicon (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1964), Fascilcle 3, 599.
124. H. G. Liddell and R. Scott, "hēgemon-ia," A Greek-English Lexicon
(Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1940), 1:762-763.
125. William F. Arndt and F. Wilbur Gingrich, "hēgemonia," A Greek-English
Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Chicago:
The University of Chicago Press, 1957), 343.
137. A similar
meaning for archēs is also seen in the writings of Greek historian
Polybius as he says that the Greeks at the time of Alexander became supreme
in Asia also when they were able to overthrow the Persian Empire. This then
implies that while the Persians were sharing authority in parts of the world
with them they were not considered to be in primacy. (Polybius, The
Histories of Polybius, 1:2.3).
140. Josephus, Antiquities,
18:6.10 [#224]. Another Jewish writer
-Philo- uses hēgemonia similarly as he says (1) that ‘Gaius had
derived his sovereignty (i.e. leadership of the Roman Empire)
from Tiberius;’ and (2) ‘Gaius succeeded to the sovereignty of
Tiberius’ [Philo, Embasssy to Gauis, 21 [#141] & 26 [#168]].
142. Josephus’s
numbers are not quite accurate here. Since Tiberius had died on March 16, 37 A.D., (see ref. in Note ??)
this would place Josephus’ starting date in about October 13, 14 A.D. which is about 66 days short of the date in which Augustus Caesar had
died (August 19, 14 A.D.). Roman Historian
Dio Cassius was also slightly inaccurate as he had mistakenly stated that
Tiberius died on March 26, 37 A.D. and therefore
calculated that Tiberius’ rule had lasted for 22 years 7 months and 7 days,
which is 10 days off the mark. [Dio Cassius, Roman History, 58:28.5].
In fairness to Josephus, if (1) his other mention of this
reckoning in Wars 2:9.5 [#180] (actually -previous mention since
he wrote Wars some 19 years before Antiquities) as: “22 years, 6
months and 3 days” is used here instead and (2) if he was reckoning the regnal
years of Tiberius according to the Jewish method (established earlier see page ??) of using (a) an
accession year and (b) beginning the years of foreign (i.e, non–Israelite)
kings in the Fall, in the month of Tishri, the 7th month, then he
would have considered Aug. 19 to Sep. 13, 14 A.D. to have been
Tiberius’ accession year, and thus his year zero, with his first year beginning
on Tishri 1 (~Sep 13) of that year, which is in fully harmony with
mid-September being the Julian Calender equivalent for the start of the Jewish
7th month.
143. Hēgemonon
is found with a similar use in the writings of Greek historian Thucydides as he
relates the letter of a military commander report to his superior about the
current condition of his sent troops and says: “And now I beg you to believe
that neither your soldiers nor your generals are blameworthy...” Later
on in that letter, this commander asks for relief because of his kidney disease
and says: “And I submit that I have a claim upon your indulgence [compliance],
for when I was strong I served you well in many positions of command [hēgemoniais].”
[Thucydides, 7:15.1, 2]
144. See also Plato, Timaeus, 45B for a similar
use of hēgemonias as it says there: “Wherefore, dealing
first with the vessel of the head, they set the face in the front thereof
and bound within it organs for all the forethought of the Soul; and they
ordained that this, which is the natural front, should be the leading part.”
[i.e.s]
146. Plato, Laws, 1A. A similar use and meaning is also found in
P Rein 913 [Papyri #9, line 13] (B.C. 112) as to refer
to: the battalion under the “commandment of Artemidorus.”
153. See Henri Estienne, Stephanus: Thesaurus
Graecae Linguae.* Vol. 5. (Austria: Akademische Druk- V. Verlagsanstalt,
1954), 87.
154. Since this
"exclusive military power" of the Emperor was only valid in provinces outside of Italy;
as it was therefore proconsular (or provincial) imperium. (See
Arnold, Roman Imperialism, 24).
156. Michael Grant, The Army of the Caesars (New
York: Charles Scribner’s Sons, 1974),
117; cf. Bunson, "Imperator," Encyclopedia of the Roman
Empire, 204; A. R. Burns, The Government of the Roman Empire from
Augustus to the Antonines (London: The Historical Association, 1952), 7.
160. See Dio Cassius, Roman History, 55:13.1-7,
cf. 55:9.4-5; Cf. B. Levick, Tiberius the Politician (London: Thames and
Hudson, 1976), 47-67; Marsh, 40-44; Robin Seager, Tiberius (Los Angeles:
University of California Press, 1972), 46, 47.
Later on Emperor Claudius did the
same thing, despite having a son of his own, to ensure that Nero would become
Emperor after him. (See Josephus, War, 2:12.8 [#248]; cf. Antiquities,
20:8.2 [#151]).
161. Suetonius, Tiberius, 3:21.1; Augustus
Caesar, Res Gestae Divi Augusti,* 2:8.4; Dio Cassius, Roman
History, 56:28.6. See also Levick, Tiberius the Politician, 63-64
note 59-65; Pat Southern, Augustus (New York: Routledge, 1998), 189; William
Smith, ed. "Augustus," DGRBM, (London: John Murray, Albemarle
Street, 1880), 1:429 cf. ibid., "Tiberius," 3:1118.
164. This was not simply e.g., a seat next to Augustus
around a table, but was a formal “front and center” seat next to the Emperor
who was positioned before the Senate, on a slightly elevated platform of/for the “Presiding Magistrate”.
See also these photos & drawings of the (restored) Senate House in Rome:
Curia Julia Floor Plan |
See also these photos & drawings of the (restored) Senate House in Rome:
Roman Senate Site Today (Restored) |
Virtual Reconstruction of Roman Senate |
Artistic Drawing of Roman Senate |
Artistic Roman Senate Session |
170. Tacitus, Annals,
1:3.3. English translation by Alfred John Church and William Jackson
Brodribb (New York: Random House, 1942).
Original Latin text
[enumeration emphasis supplied]: “illuc cuncta vergere: [1]
filius, [2] collega imperii, [3] consors tribuniciae potestatis [4]
adsumitur omnisque per exercitus ostentatur,”
173. From the Latin
iussit = 3rd sing, perfect tense of iubeo/jubeo - he ordered/commanded.
(Full Latin phrase: “quos et ferre nomen suum iussit”)
174. Notwithstanding,
Tiberius refrained from assuming this title until it was conferred on him by
the Senate (see Dio Cassius, Roman History, 57:2.1).
176. See H. Dieckmann, Die effecktive
Mitregentschaft des Tiberius,* Klio 15 (1917/18): 339-375; C. H. V. Sutherland, Coinage in
Roman Imperial Policy 31 B.C.- A.D. 68 (London, 1951), 77; Robin Seager, Tiberius
(illustrations between page 46 and 47); Levick, Tiberius the Politician,
63.
177. These were
years reckoned according to the Actian Era which began and ended on September 2
as it commemorated Augustus’s naval battle victory at Actium of September 2, 31
B.C.
178. Lewin, Thomas.
Fasti Sacri.* A Key to the Chronology of the New Testament (London:
Longmans, Green & Co., 1865), liv.
182. Ibid. In fact Augustus was hailed as “imperator”
a total of 21 times during his life [See Augustus Caesar, Res Gestae Divi
Augusti,* 1:4.21; Finegan, 86 [#180, 181].
184. See Josephus, War
of the Jews 6.6.1 [#316]. Josephus actually says that Titus was “made” imperator
at that point but this doesn’t appear to be a technically accurate expression
here based on the way that victorious Roman general were usually “hailed” as imperator.
197. See Bunson,
"Pliny the Elder," Encyclopedia of the Roman Empire, 331, 332.
This “Pliny the Elder,” whose actual name was Gaius Plinius Secundus [See
Suetonius, Gaius Caligula, 4:8.1], is not to be confused with “Pliny
the Younger” (61 A.D.-122 A.D.) who actually was the nephew of Pliny the Elder and whose actual full name was Gaius
Plinius Caecilius Secundus and was a front line Roman official [See
Bunson, "Pliny the Younger," 332].
203. See also the
defense for late 12 A.D. by G. V. Sumner,
"The Truth About Velleius Paterculus: prolegomena," HSCP 74,
(1970), 270 note107.
204. Woodman,
Anthony John. The Tiberian narrative, 2.94-131 / Velleius Paterculus. [Cambridge Classical Texts and Commentaries:
19] Cambridge; New York : Cambridge University Press, 1977. 211-212.
208. It thus cannot
be said as a “hard and fast” rule that hēgemonias solely refers
to a sole rule. This would be as incorrect as saying that they word “many”
(i.e., a large number, which technically, means at least ‘more than one’)
solely refers to situations involving ‘1000 or more’ because, e.g., it is used
for such in a sample of examples with only one situation involving ‘100 or more’.
210. This native
land of Luke is based on the testimony of Church Father Eusebius Ecclesiastical
History 3:4.6 who claims that Luke was “by race an Antiochan.” Antioch was
an important city in the province of Syria. [See Map#3 for location].
215. See e.g., A.
T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of
Historical Research. 5th ed. (New York and London: Harper
& Brothers Publishers, 1931), 343, 344; Gerald L. Stevens, New Testament
Greek (New York: University Press of America, 1994), 25, 26; etc.
218. Ibid., 26; Cf.
William D. Mounce, Basics of Biblical Greek (Grand Rapids, MI:
Zondervan, 1993), 118, 119; J. A. Brooks and C. L. Winbery, Syntax of New
Testament Greek (Lanham, MD: University Press of America, 1979), 98.
222. This verb does
not appear in its visible augmented form in the NT manuscripts (coded):
B*, Wsupp, 33, 124, 579, P66*, c, P75*, c, a, Ψ:[MSS Mean Date = 6th Cent.]; but
it does appear in its visible augmented form in NT manuscripts: A, Bc,
E, F, G, H, K, L, M, N, P, S, U, Y, f 1 ={only MSS: 1, 118, 1582}, f 13 ={only MSS: 13, 69, 124, 788, 1346}, Δ, Λ, Θ, Ψ, Ω, tr, 565, 700, 1071, 1424: [MSS ang1033 Mean Date = 9th/10th
Cent.]. [See Appendix C for the list of the full names and/or dates of these
manuscripts].
223. See William D.
Mounce, The Morphology of Biblical Greek (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan,
1994), 67.
224. An example of
the meaning of the imperfect (durative) form of the verb ‘to build’ is
seen in Luke 17:28 [NASB] where the action of the people in Sodom of “building.”
along with all of there other actions of “eating;” “drinking;” “buying;” “selling;”
and “planting;” are all in the imperfect tense to indicate ongoing
actions.
226. The translation of ‘It
has taken 46 years to build this temple’ would be incorrect also
because of the fact that it would require a conjugated form of the verb “to
take” in the Greek text along with an infinitive form for the verb “to build.”
227. For other example of similar uses and meanings of
naos see e.g., Matt 23:16, 17; Luke 1:9, 21, 22; etc.
230. See also Rev 21:22 where this concept that Jesus
represented and replaced the physical temple is again related by John.
233. Jack Finegan (Handbook of
Biblical Chronology, 1957, 277) had argued that the statement of
Josephus (Antiquities, 15:11.1 [#380]), that was accurately
translated as: “And now Herod, in the eighteenth year of his reign, . . .”
should be understood as: ‘eighteen years in Herod’s reign had already passed by
here and he was now entering in his nineteenth year passed.’ This is based on
his translation of the perfect participle gegonotos here (lit. “come to
be”) but this is a supposition on his part, as he admitted [ibid.]. This
perfect participle [See
below on pp. for the meaning of the Greek perfect
tense] is actually literally translated as: “[When the eighteenth year of
Herod] had come to be [i.e., ‘had come to originate;’ in the sense of: ‘had
begun’],” and the past action that is being emphasized here is not a completed
eighteenth year, but rather the completed start of this
eighteenth year. (This argument by Finegan is not present inthe updated (1998
p. 347 [#592]) version of his work, however it is still mention here as this is
a mistaken conclusion that can easily be made by a translator).
The study of O. Edwards ("Herodian Chronology,"
PEQ 114 (1982), 29-42) has shown that Herod’s reigned was more than
likely reckoned according to the Jewish Fall-to-Fall, Civil Calender. (Cf. Note #194; K. F. Doig, NT
Chronology, 91, 92). According to Parker and Dubberstein’s (45) calender
reconstruction, it would have started back around October 1, 21 B.C.
234. Cf. Finegan, 276. For a table of the consuls who ruled between 44 B.C.-135 A.D. see (Ibid.) 84-85 [#179].
237. In the book War of the Jews, there is an
apparently contradictory statement of Josephus which says: “in the fifteenth
year of his reign, he (Herod) restored the temple.” (Wars 1:21.1 [#401])
This would then make the Temple reconstruction begin in 23 B.C., but commentators are in agreement that this might be a chronological
error on the part of Josephus or a later copyist, or a textual corruption. [cf.
Finegan, 277-278;
Hoehner, 40].
240. Josephus also makes a distinction between the
words naos and hieron in his writings as he later goes on
to say that Herod stood in the hieron to make a speech to the
people. (Antiquities, 16:4.6 [#132]). This was obviously the
outer courts or Temple precincts since Herod, was not allowed to go into the
place of the altar and sanctuary (see Ibid., 15:11.6 [#421]).
244. See Finegan,
96. Roman historian Dio Cassius contradictorily states that this siege
took place during the consulship of: “Claudius and Norbanus,” which was 38 B.C. (See Dio Cassius, Roman History, 49:23.1) but as Emil Schürer
(1:284, 285), has clearly shown, it is Dio Cassius and not Josephus that is
inaccurate here.
246. Contra: Peter
Richardson, Herod (University of South Carolina Press, 1996), 160, who
says that it was in June; A. H. M. Jones, The Herod of Judea
(Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1967 [1938]), 48, who says that it was in July;
Abraham Schalit, König Herodes. Der Mann und sein Werk.* (Berlin:
de Gruyter, 1969), 764-768, who says that it was in August; and
semi-contra: Michael Grant, Herod the Great (New York: American
Heritage, 1971), 59, who says that it was in either August or September.
Also contra: Schürer, 1:285 note 11, who says that this “third month” was
probably the third month of the engagement (June or July). Josephus also uses
this “third month” expression to refer to the third month after the beginning
month of the Olympiad -July- in: Antiquities, 14:4.3 [#66].
247. Josephus, Antiquities,
14:16.4 [#487]. Cf. Ibid., 14:4.3 [#64-#66]; Dio Cassius, Roman History,
37:16.2b-4, who called the Jewish Sabbaths: “the days of Saturn”; Strabo
16:2.40 [#762, #763]; Schürer, 1:239, 240 note #23.
248. This date of
the 25th is based on the fact that the Israel’s Day of Atonement was
celebrated on the “10th day of the 7th (Jewish) month”
(See Lev 16:29, 23:27, 25:9). Since the 7th month of the Jewish
calender (Tishri) was reckoned from mid-September to mid-October on the Julian
Calender (see calender in Appendix A), then the 10th day of that
month would fall from at least September 25 of Julian calender.
250. Dio Cassius, (Roman
History, 37:10.4) places these events in the time when ‘Marcus
Cicero had become consul with Gaius Antonius’ which was in 63B.C. (tinyurl=1)
251. Accordingly to
the modern theoretical calender reconstructions and recalculations of
Parker and Dubberstein for the two key dates here of the 20 B.C. Passover Day and the 19 B.C. Day of Atonement were calculated to
have fallen on April 9 and October 3, respectively, in these years (see Parker
and Dubberstein, 44 & 45), but the March [25] and September
[25] dates which are indicated by the dating formula of Josephus have to be
given priority here over those theoretical recalculation.
252. This date is
based on the fact that the Passover Feast took place 14 days after the start of
the first Jewish month (Nisan) which normally is mid-March. (Cf. e.g. Exod.
12:2, 6 & calender in Appendix A).
253. Since the
Passover Lamb was sacrificed on the ‘Altar of Sacrifice’ which was located in
the courtyard of the Temple precinct and not in the Sanctuary itself, it
could conversely be argued here that even if Herod began his work on the “Sanctuary”
before Passover Day it would not interfere with the ceremonies of this Feast.
(Also the 7-day Feast of Unleavened Bread which immediately followed the
Passover Day (see e.g, Exod.12:15ff; Lev 23:5ff) also involved (burnt)
sacrifices (Lev 23:8, 12), but also did not require the services of the
Sanctuary).
257. This is
especially based on the reasonable understanding that Herod the Great was not
recognized as a national Jewish king but as a “commoner” because he was foreign-born, and thus had no claim the Jewish throne and only got this position
because he had been appointed by the Roman Senate. His reign was therefore should
not reckoned according the “Sacred” Spring-to-Spring Calender but according to
the “Hellenistic” Fall-to-Fall Calender, contrary to most opinions. (Cf.
Edwards, 29). Edwards also proves that a Fall-to-Fall reckoning here would also
“rectify the inconsistencies in Herodian chronology” (Ibid.).
(See Appendix A for a discussion concerning these two Calenders).
258. See A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek NT
..., 833; C. F. D. Moule, An Idiom Book of the New Testament Greek.
2nd ed. (Cambridge, England: University Press, 1959), 11; William Hendriksen, Exposition
of the Gospel According to John (Grand Rapids: Baker Book House, 1953),
1:125 note 64; Leon Morris, The Gospel according to John (Grand Rapids:
Wm. B. Eerdmans, 1971), 200 note 81.
260. This also
contradicts A.T. Robertson’s claim (833) that it was ‘the whole period of
forty-six years [that was being] treated as a point.’ A further argument can be
made for a Constantive classification based on the fact that in the
indicative mood this type of aorist is better known as a Historical
aorist, and is often the characteristic of verbs whose inherent meaning
imply a durative (linear) action, i.e. to build, [See Brooks and Winbery, 99],
but as we will see, the Culminative classification better harmonizes
with the overall grammatical and historical context of this statement.
263. Cf. Daniel B.
Wallace ([Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan,
1996] 560, 561) who also uses the same points as the ones mentioned above to defend a Culminative
function for the aorist in this verse over the usual Constantive view.
266. For a similar translation see Hoehner, 43, and
Paul L. Maier, "The Date of the Nativity and the Chronology of Jesus’
Life," Chronos, kairos, Christos. Edited by Jerry Vardaman and
Edwin M. Yamauchi (Winona Lake:
Eisenbrauns, 1989), 123.
267. NKJV. See
also NASB, NIV NRSV. The KJV and RSV have “in building” instead of “under
construction.”
271. This text is
in Aramaic because it is part of a larger Aramaic document (Ezra 5:7-17) from,
more than likely, the Persian Empire archives, that was inserted here by the
person who wrote the first part (Ezra 1 to 6) of what we now call the book of
Ezra. [See Ch. 4, pp. Note #17
for an additional explanation of the origin of Ezra 1-6].
272. It is a
reflexive (or passive) counterpart of the Piel stem (Waltke and O’Connor,
IBHS, 426 [26.1.1d]), so it thus indicates an action that has to
forcefully be ‘made to happen,’ by either the subject itself or by outside
agent.
273. Cf. Zodhiates, "Hithpeel/Ithpeel
Participle," TCWS-OT, 2288 & Waltke and O’Connor, IBHS,
619, 620 [37.4a, c], for the translation of this passive participle as an attributive
adjectival participle (i.e., continued state of becoming built). A
passive participle also “tends to describe a situation not implying progressive
activity, but one resulting from some earlier action.” (Waltke and O’Connor, IBHS,
614 [37.1e].
274. An Ingressive aorist can be translated with words
like "came," or "became," or "began." [Cf. Brooks
and Winbery, Syntax of NT Greek, 99.]
275. Other examples
in the Greek Old Testament of the verb ‘to build’ in the visibly augmented aorist form (and in various
verbal tenses) occur in Num 13:22; 1 Kgs 3:2 [3 Kgs 3:2 in LXX]; 1 Kgs 6:7; Neh
7:1; Isa 10:9 [LXX only] Ezek 27:5. They accurately indicate a completed
building action in past time.
279. Cf. Robert H. Stein, The Method and Message of
Jesus’ Teachings. Rev. ed. (Louisville, KY: Westminster John Knox Press,
1994), 21, 22.
280. Wallace, (p.
560n20) describes the answer of the Jews as “non-sequitur” and resolves
this by focusing on a probably understood “implicit point” that: ‘since the
Temple had stood built for 46 years, then it was well built, thus it could not
be rebuilt in 3 days as they seem to be understand Jesus.
281. Keep in mind
that there were no (demolition) explosives nor, obviously. powered equipment,
so such grand destructions in those days, even if by battering rams, was almost
as difficult and labor intensive as the building process, (which also,
especially if it was destroyed by the faster battering rams, would then require
new building materials, which would greatly add to this rebuilding time. Indeed,
as mentioned above, such a material assembly work, which according to Josephus had required ‘1000
wagons and also 10,000+ skilled workers’ to complete the job in 1.5 years (Antiquities,
15:11.2 [#390]), would physically have literally taken a lone person
much more than three years to complete.
283. E.g., Matt 26:61; Mark 15:29; see also the
similar capital condemnation with Stephen in Acts 6:14.
284. Keeping again
in mind again not to included the nonexistent year "zero" as we went
from 1 B.C. to 1 A.D. on the time-line..
285. The date of
this Passover of A.D. 28 goes to shed
some more light on the controversial “Testimonium Flavianum” (Josephus’s
apparent statement about Jesus Christ- Antiquities, 18:3.3 [#63, #64]).
Just prior to this Testimonium, Josephus mentions that Pilate relocated
his army from Caesarea to Jerusalem to take their winter quarters there. (Ibid.,
18.3.1 [#55]). He then mentions that Pilate did this in order to abolish the
Jewish [religious] laws and went on to try to introduce the effigies (graven
images) of Caesar in Jerusalem, but this led to an immediate, passionate revolt
by the Jews which eventually led Pilate to finally take down the images. (Ibid.,
18:3.1 [#55-#59]). Pilate then tried to fund the building of an aqueduct by
using the temple’s money, but this also led to another revolt which resulted in
much bloodshed (Ibid., 18:3.1 [#60-#62]). Now all of this appears to
have occurred very early in Pilate tenure as prefect of Judea, and since we
have seen that he began to rule there in the spring of 27 A.D., then this all apparently occurred around the time of his first winter
in Palestine (i.e., the winter of 27/28 A.D.). Now it is,
interestingly enough, right after these
incidents that the Josephus Testimonium occurs. This harmonizes with
this fact that Jesus had made His first public appearance in the spring of 28 A.D. and that by performing many miracles during that very year’s Passover in
Jerusalem.
286. Cf. L. Casson,
Travel in the Ancient World (London: George Allen and Unwin, 1974), 189,
who says 15-20 miles; W. M. Ramsay, St. Paul the Traveler and the Roman
Citizen (London: Hodder and Stoughton, 1896), 383, 386 (16-20 miles per
day); M. P. Charlesworth, Trade-Routes and Commerce in the Roman Empire
(Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1924), 21ff, 24, 43, 247, 258 (16-20
miles per day); Jerome Murphy-O’Connor, "Traveling Conditions in the First
Century; On the Road and On the Sea With St. Paul," BibRev 1
(1985), 40 (20 miles per day). Also according to the narrative of Acts 10:3-9,
the men who were sent to bring Peter to Cornelius made the 30-mile trip from
Caesarea (by the Sea) to Joppa in about 24 hours (that is: a night and a day).
(Comp. esp. vss. 3 & 9). [See Map#3
for locations].
288. For a more detailed discussion of this six day
outline see J. Ramsey Michaels, John- NIBC. Vol. 4 (Peabody,
MA: Hendrickson Publishers, 1989), 28-49.
289. Cf. Isidore Singer, ed. "Marriage
Ceremonies," The Jewish Encyclopedia, (New York: Funk and Wagnalls
Co., 1904), 8:340-347.
290. It would be safe to assume that Jesus stayed for
the entire feast as He apparently performed the miracle of changing the water
in wine near the very end of the feast which is why the master of the feast was
surprised that such "good" (fresh) wine was "brought
out" so late in the festivities
(John 2:10). It was more than likely the case that, all week long, the guest at
this feast had been celebrating, eating and drinking and that their originally
good-tasting wine probably did not taste as fresh as it had earlier in the
week.
They also had not been consuming
alcoholic wine due especially to the presence of women and children at these
weddings festivities. For an excellent related Biblical study on this subject
of the use of alcoholic beverages in the Bible, see Samuele Bacchiocchi, Wine
in the Bible (Berrien Springs, MI: Biblical Perspectives, 1989). Pages
136-175 discusses the topic of ‘Jesus and Wine in the NT.’
292. Some may have noticed that there is an apparent
contradiction between Matthew’s and Luke’s gospels concerning the sequential
order of Christ’s temptations. Matthew has what would be a 1-2-3 order (Matt
4:3f; 5, 6f; 8ff); while Luke has a 1-3-2 order (Luke 4:3f; 5, 6ff; 9ff). What
appears to have been the case here, based on a comparative study of various
Greek manuscripts of these passages, is that Jesus was not tempted only 3 times
but actually 4 times, but with only three temptations. Temptation #3
(bowing before the devil to (painlessly) regain the kingdoms of the world) was
apparently brought before Jesus twice (Matt 4:8ff & Luke 4:5ff). This is
made evident by the following 4 textual and contextual indications.
(1) A textual study of Luke’s
passage (as all major Bible versions except the KJV) reveals that Jesus more
than likely did not say to the devil: “Get thee behind Me, Satan!” after
He was (first) presented with that compromising "offer." (See Greek
text in GNT, 209). At that time He actually simply made appeal to Deut 6:13-“You
shall worship the Lord your God, ....”- as His defense to strictly follow
God’s plan. It apparently was only after the Devil came back to Him with this
same temptation again that He then ordered him to ‘Get behind Him!’[Interestingly
enough, at the time when in Christ’s ministry that Satan tried again to subtly
suggest this "painless solution" to Jesus, but in a more subtle way
(Matt 16:22, Jesus wasted no words with him and straightforwardly used this
same authoritative command to chase him away (16:23a)].
(2) Matthew in his text, seemed to
have indicated that Jesus’s third temptation was indeed a repeat temptation as
he began the account of this temptation with the Greek comparative
adverb palin (“again”) (Matt 4:8).
(3) There is a noticeable linguistic
variation between Matthew and Luke in the Greek wording of the third temptation
(unlike their almost word-for-word similar rendition of the other two
temptations) that suggest that they may have indeed been two separate
occasions.
(4) A literal rendering of the Greek
words that are used for “the world” in Matthew and Luke seems to suggests that
there may even have been a "heightening in attraction" at the time of
the repeated temptation. Luke simply says that Jesus was “led up” (assumedly, physically to some high vantage
point) and all of the “kingdoms of the inhabited world” (Gk. -tēs oikoumenēs)
were showed to Him (“in one moment”) with their authority and glory ‘promised’
to Him if He ‘complied.’ Matthew, on the other hand says that (at the second
time), Jesus was taken to an “exceedingly (Gk.-lian) high
mountain” and was shown the “kingdoms of the entire (lit. universal) world
[Gk.-tou kosmou],” with their glory being promised to Him. Since
Luke himself seemed to use the Greek expression oikoumeē to refer
particularly to the realm of the Roman Empire (cf. Luke 2:1; Acts 11:28; 19:27
and also the statements made to Roman officials in Acts 17:6; 24:5; but not to
Jesus’s own statement in Luke 21:26), it could be that at the time of the
second proposition of this temptation, its “promised” reward was more
extensively emphasized to Jesus showing that it would actually extend throughout the entire planet, i.e.,
including not yet discovered/inhabited regions.
293 Again indifferently complacently & “blissfully”|ignoramusly|moronically, idiotically, yet innately/naturally/pridefully guilefully: “fluffly” (~=EW 36.2), -indeed just as per the indifferently profiteering so-called “work” of the SDA ‘dens of, moreover con artist, thieves’, (John 2:16|Matt 21:13|Ezek 13), reclaimed here by Doug Batchelor.
294 To my own (fleshly) “disappointment”, my prior belief that ‘Jesus was prophetically timely baptized in the Fall/October of 27 AD, indeed just had to be abandoned in the light of the Biblical, and also, manifestly direct, SOP evidence, as related earlier. Sure it would surfacely seem more convincing and convicting to continue to, now indifferently, make this ‘more powerful’ claim, -(as selectively, inherently preferably “moronically”, “choir-preachingly”/outrightly circularly smugly declaratively done here[53:06-59:20ff] by Stephen Bohr), but the research history of my dealing with this prophecy has foundationally been to have the most objectively, i.e., non-circularly, demonstrable evidence as possible, pointedly as I am endeavoring to convince others of the validity of this ‘Fully Messianic’ prophetic reckoning. So “blissfully” ignoring contraring evidence is not at all seen, nor deemed, to be a viable course/alternative for me, whatever the cost.*
And in fact, I am more deeply seeing from this sort of “monkey wrench”, (in terms of all-precise fulfillements) in this overall interpreted chronology, that here also, God had effectuated His consistent, faith-testing/proving principle that He will always leave room for doubt in whatever He does. (GC 527.2; SC 105.2). So here, while a baptism of Christ Himself in the Fall of 27AD would virtually remove most doubt, the evident, actual Biblical reality that it was the (possible, even probable) start of John’s Forerunning Messianic preaching which had (seamlessly) provided the timely fulfillement, does indeed provide the ‘hook for doubt’, so that no one will be faith-lessly “convicted” (“against their will”) by merely the “tangible” chronological evidence of this prophecy, but rather truly, primarily, by its (sealing/anchoring) Spiritual (cf. John 6:26) Fully-Messianic “running theme”. (John 6:34-35ff; cf. John 6:41ff)
* I myself had priorly been claiming as an explanation for the evidentially incontrovertible gap between a baptism of Christ in late-Sep/early-October 27 A.D. and the start of his journeying right after coming out of the wilderness, ca. 20-25 days before the Passover of 28 A.D. that ‘the Holy Spirit probably did not drive Christ into the wilderness, for 40 days, in what was the significantly colder, even with possible snowfall, winter months. Weather information showed that the ca. 1250-1750 feet above see level Judean Wilderness had average temperatures ranging from only 6C (43F) to 11C (53F). (E.g. as, still validly applicable, this would be just like the ‘pro-Fall (Feast of Tabernacles) & contra-December (25)’ Christmas argument which points out that: shepherds at Christ’s birth were probably not having their flock of sheep outside, overnight, in late December. (Luke 2:8ff)). So I thus, at “best”, had had to (contra-Biblically) posit that Jesus had not gone to the wilderness “immediately” after His Baptism, but ca. 3-4 (winter) months later, in January or February of 28 A.D.
* I myself had priorly been claiming as an explanation for the evidentially incontrovertible gap between a baptism of Christ in late-Sep/early-October 27 A.D. and the start of his journeying right after coming out of the wilderness, ca. 20-25 days before the Passover of 28 A.D. that ‘the Holy Spirit probably did not drive Christ into the wilderness, for 40 days, in what was the significantly colder, even with possible snowfall, winter months. Weather information showed that the ca. 1250-1750 feet above see level Judean Wilderness had average temperatures ranging from only 6C (43F) to 11C (53F). (E.g. as, still validly applicable, this would be just like the ‘pro-Fall (Feast of Tabernacles) & contra-December (25)’ Christmas argument which points out that: shepherds at Christ’s birth were probably not having their flock of sheep outside, overnight, in late December. (Luke 2:8ff)). So I thus, at “best”, had had to (contra-Biblically) posit that Jesus had not gone to the wilderness “immediately” after His Baptism, but ca. 3-4 (winter) months later, in January or February of 28 A.D.
296. Cf. JB, NASB,
NEB, NKJV, RSV, NRSV; Robert G. Bratcher, A Translator's Guide to the Gospel
of Luke (New York: United Bible Societies, 1982), 55, 56.
298. Cf. Spiros
Zodhiates, Exe. ed., The Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible, (Chattanooga, TN:
AMG Publishers, 1990), 1889 [entries #5613 & 5616].
300. This age is
keeping in mind that His first year (8 B.C. - 7 B.C.) was His year
"0"-(i.e., we are all actually a year older than the age we normally
state because our year "0" is not include in the reckoning of our
age).
302. Also,
technically speaking, Jesus, being from the tribe of Judah, was not a “Levitical”
Priest (see Heb 7:11-8:6) so this age requirement, even as low as 20, did not
apply to Him. In fact, being from the, even prophetically, Royal tribe of Judah
(Gen 49:9, 10; Heb 7:14; cf. 8:4) and that directly in the Royal/Davidic line
(Matt 1:1-17), and, as demonstrated throughout the history of Israel’s and Judah’s
kings, there was no age requirement to ascend to the throne, with an age as low
as 8 having been accepted, (2 Kgs 22:1) Jesus, who no doubt fully knew, having
been (repeatedly) told by Mary, that He had been Divinely designated to be the
King of Israel (Luke 1:32, 33) really could have begun his ministry at any age,
even at 12 (Luke 2:46-51) as He was then Intellectually/Spiritually/Biblically
capable and also fully aware of His calling.
304. This age of 34
would also help make sense of the remark that a group of Pharisees later made
to Jesus in John 8:57 about Him not being ‘50 years old yet.’ It would seem
that such a remark would be more appropriately made to someone who was in His
late thirties at the time rather than someone who was still in His early
thirties.
305. The
Melchizedek that is mentioned in this verse was a mysterious, yet significant
Old Testament figure who lived in the time of Abraham. Because of his double
role as a “priest of the Most High God” and “King of [Jeru]Salem” [see Gen
14:18 cf. Psa 76:2;110:4], he became a prominent type of Christ.
306. In a similar
way, John the Baptist who, although he was the son of the Levi Zacharias (Luke
1:5, 8, 9), did not begin his ministry because he had then become of
"legal age," but as Luke indicates, it was because ‘a (‘spoken’-i.e.
prophetic) word from God [Greek= rhēma theou] had come to
him...’ (Luke 3:2b). John seems to be alluding to this event when, in John
1:33, he went on to share with others the actual instructions he had received
from a Heavenly voice while he was in the wilderness. Now since John the
Baptist was older than his cousin Jesus, then he would have been older than
this 35-year age when he began his ministry and thus 5 years passed the
traditional legal debut age of 30.
307. See the use of
this word as such in passages like Matt 8:29; 13:30; 16:3; 21:34, 41; 26:18;
Mark 10:30; 12:2; 13:33; Luke 1:20; 12:56; 19:44; 21:8, etc, although the
literal translation of “the set/appointed time” is not always given by most
English translations.
308. This “has been
fulfilled” translation here is a more accurate translation of the perfect
indicative passive form [Cf. Zodhiates, TCWS-NT, 115] of the
verb “fulfilled” here in Mark 1:15 than the common “is fulfilled” (see e.g.,
KJV, NKJV, NASB).
312. See Brooks and
Winbery, Syntax of NT Greek, 105; Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the
Basics, 574-576.
313. The importance
of this in relation to the proper reckoning of Christ’s public ministry will be
done later. (“The Year of the
Crucifixion,” Ch. 7, pp.)
314. Also, as the
mostly genuine, Book-of-Proverbs like, Gospel of (Judas) Thomas
adds in relation to this saying of Jesus: “A physician does not heal those who
know him.” (Thom. 31.2). For a recent, succinct discussion on the Gospel
of Thomas see: Stephen J. Patterson James M . Robinson and Hans-Gebhard
Bethge, The Fifth Gospel (Harrisburg, PA: Trinity Press International,
1998).
315. Keith Green
in “Song to My Parents (I Only Want to See You There)” on the Sparrow
Records album: "For Him Who Has Ears to Hear," [April Music, Inc.
(ASCAP), 1977].
316. The fact that
Jesus was indeed a close follower of Old Testament Messianic prophecy in also
seen, e.g., Luke 4:17-21; and also particularly in John 19:28-30 where John
seems to indicate that Jesus had purposely said "I thirst" on the
cross in order to fully fulfill the Messianic prophecy of Psa 22 (vs.
15). (This incident was a different situation than the time when Jesus
was offered to drink just prior to being crucified and had refused
because the Romans had given Him an alcoholic, painkilling mixture [Matt 27:34,
35]).
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